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Old 04-06-2006, 04:24 AM   #1
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Default When and where are the OT laws repealed?

Something that has been confusing me for a while. In the pentatuech, you come across a whole load of laws, Leviticus in particular. However, moden Christians feel free to ignore these laws by and large, although they often quote them when useful (a man shall not lie with a man etc).

I wondered what the rationale behind this was, how some laws are still valid and some are not. In particular
  1. The mixed clothing law
  2. The pork & shellfish law
  3. The whole mildew/leprosy/Tzaraath thing.

I've heard number 2 is effectively revoked by the washing hands bit in Matthew 15:11. Others by Romans 3:20+.

And how does all this square with Matthew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. "

To me it all seems a little convenient. Whats the establishment view?
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Old 04-06-2006, 05:39 AM   #2
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My fundie daughter explained to me that Jesus, in dying fulfilled the law, and his death did away with the old Covenant (ie the Penteteuch laws).

Paul (writing, I might add some 30 years before Matthew) quote mined the OT and found a passage relating to a "New Covenant" which would replace the OT laws.

I suppose even he could not stomach the idea that stoning your children to death if they annoyed you enough was one of God's better ideas.

There appears to be no logic to all this, but quite a few modern Christians virtually disregard the OT, except when it relates to "historical" events, such as the creation and the flood, and as you said, pretty well all of them will eat a BLT sandwich.

Norm
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Old 04-06-2006, 05:53 AM   #3
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Originally Posted by fromdownunder
My fundie daughter explained to me that Jesus, in dying fulfilled the law, and his death did away with the old Covenant (ie the Penteteuch laws).....
So why all the fuss we hear about displaying the 10 commandments:huh:

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Old 04-06-2006, 06:01 AM   #4
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A Calvinist tried explaining it to me once but gave up when she saw the glazed look in my eyes.
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Old 04-06-2006, 06:23 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Codec
Something that has been confusing me for a while. In the pentatuech, you come across a whole load of laws, Leviticus in particular. However, moden Christians feel free to ignore these laws by and large, although they often quote them when useful (a man shall not lie with a man etc).

I wondered what the rationale behind this was, how some laws are still valid and some are not....

And how does all this square with Matthew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. "

To me it all seems a little convenient. Whats the establishment view?
Briefly, the OT is seen as presenting moral law, ceremonial law and civil law. The civil laws are seen as having expired with OT Israel. Jesus' statement quoted above is seen as eliminating the ceremonial law's applicability. The moral law (represented most prominently by the Ten Commandments) remains in full force and effect.
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Old 04-06-2006, 06:44 AM   #6
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Originally Posted by David B
So why all the fuss we hear about displaying the 10 commandments:huh:

David B
Yep, for her Church they are out the window too, replaced by Jesus saying (I am quoting here from memory, and it's been a long time) "Love thy God with all thy heart and with all thy mind and with all thy strength and love thy neighbour as thyself"

As far as THE BIG 10 go, I supect that many people do not even know what they are, and are certainly not aware that there are three different versions of them in the Bible (two in Exodus, one in Deuteronomy)

The only ones that are explicitly called the 10 commandments are the ones in Exodus 34. And, trust me on this, they are NOT the 10 that people wish to see displayed.

Norm
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Old 04-06-2006, 06:53 AM   #7
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That's interesting, Norm. http://www.skepticsannotatedbible.com/ex/34.html

Actually, I'd be quite entertained if they started going up on Americam Public buildings.

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Old 04-06-2006, 07:52 AM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RPS
Briefly, the OT is seen as presenting moral law, ceremonial law and civil law. The civil laws are seen as having expired with OT Israel. Jesus' statement quoted above is seen as eliminating the ceremonial law's applicability. The moral law (represented most prominently by the Ten Commandments) remains in full force and effect.

Is there a way to distinguish which law in the Hebrew scriptures is which? How would a person reading know whether a particular commandment given is moral, ceremonial, or civil? I suppose for some of the laws it might be obvious, like the calling for various animal sacrifices would be cermonial, I assume.

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Old 04-06-2006, 07:59 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nectaris
Is there a way to distinguish which law in the Hebrew scriptures is which? How would a person reading know whether a particular commandment given is moral, ceremonial, or civil? I suppose for some of the laws it might be obvious, like the calling for various animal sacrifices would be cermonial, I assume.
There's no clear-cut way, and it can be contentious. Note the theonomists, for example.
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Old 04-06-2006, 09:24 AM   #10
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http://www.thebricktestament.com//ex.../ex34_04b.html

:-D
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