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09-20-2004, 05:45 PM | #21 | |
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I don't think this is dispositive evidence one way or the other. Paul did not say that the Savior operated in a spiritual realm, but he did not say that the Savior was clearly anchored on earth in recent historical time. He can mention the third heaven, but he hesitates to talk about it. You are making an argument from silence in a way. Paul is silent about the Savior in a higher realm. But can you show that Paul would have written about this mystery if he believed in a cosmic savior? This might have been a mystery reserved to the initiates. |
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09-20-2004, 06:19 PM | #22 | |
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[Editted to add] And he's only "obviously somewhat reluctant" if you presume that he should be mentioning it. What if we don't have that presumption? Where's the reluctance then? How "obvious" is it? Regards, Rick Sumner |
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09-20-2004, 06:25 PM | #23 |
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Surely the Valentinians would qualify?
the parts of Valentinian thinking preserved by Irenaeus describe a Christ engendered by the Mother which sounds fairly mythic....although Fragment E suggests that it assumed a historic Jesus (although one who could eat and drink without excreting).
Basilides seems to have assumed a historic appearance of Christ, even though his nature was mythic (so he did not suffer etc). so maybe the categories historic/mythic are not adequate? The forthcoming research by Joe Atwill definitively proves that the historic Jesus was a Roman invention and that the Gospels are Flavian forgeries.... |
09-20-2004, 10:02 PM | #24 | ||||
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It is only the appearances that are explicitly connected to recent time and it is the appearances that are described as conclusively establishing the truth of the death and resurrection. Quote:
I would be more than happy to find learn of it since, as far as I can tell, Paul can be just as easily read either way. Quote:
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09-20-2004, 10:22 PM | #25 | ||
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It seems to me that the location of the sacrifice was clearly not considered relevant to Paul whether Jesus was historical or not. I don't understand why we should expect these kinds of statements to be made by believers in the theology described by MJ theorists. |
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09-20-2004, 10:48 PM | #26 | |||
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By "stumbling" I can only presume you mean "looting antiquities." Quote:
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Which is precisely my point. The silence isn't as valuable to the MJ position as it's often made out to be. There's some odd silence no matter what position you're advocating. Regards, Rick Sumner |
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09-21-2004, 03:44 AM | #27 | |||
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Vorkosigan |
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09-21-2004, 04:17 AM | #28 | |
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If for example Paul believed in a mythical Jesus and everyone else misunderstood him then explicit statements of such a belief would not be expected. However if the suggestions earlier in the quote that a large number of early Christian writings probably shared this belief were to be correct then the absense of explicit and unambiguous staetments to this effect does become surprising. Andrew Criddle |
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09-21-2004, 05:04 AM | #29 | |
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It seems to me that Paul's statement in Col 2:15 is pretty clear. What Doherty is asking you to do is discard about 2,000 years of presuppositions about how the text is to be read, particularly presuppositions that involve back-reading the gospel story into the Pauline corpus. If you read Col 2:15 without any gospel preconceptions, then it is a straight and explicity statement of what happened. Another problem is that all of these documents have been edited and interpolated. Whatever was in there has been hacked on -- for example, the clearly Cosmic Christ hymn in Philippians has had an insertion to historicize it. So again, perhaps these documents were once a lot more explicit. The trend of interpolation appears to run in one direction only. Vorkosigan |
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09-21-2004, 05:14 AM | #30 | |||
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In Galatians we are told (4:4) that Christ was sent forth 'when the time had fully come' to redeem mankind (In 3:7 we are told that redemption is by the crucifixion of Christ hence 4:4 refers to Christ being sent forth to suffer death.) In the context of Galatians 4:1-7 the 'time' must mean the time appointed by God for mankind to enter into the new relation with God which Christ's death makes possible. Hence Paul believes that at the time set by God for mankind to enter into a new relation with himself, Christ died and was resurrected in order to make that new relationship possible. I can find no plausible reason why Paul should hold that although when Christ arose from the dead this new relationship was now both possible and appropriate in terms of God's time-scale, nevertheless there was a long period before this relationship was actually instituted by the revelation of the risen Christ to the apostles. (Would in general evidence that someone is speaking of recent events imply that they are to be regarded as speaking historically and not mythically ? I ask because some works sometimes regarded as 'mythicist' seem to be talking about (reasonably) recent event quite unambiguously. Hebrews ('in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son' ''he has appeared once for all at the end of the age to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself') would be a good example) Quote:
I'm NOT saying we should rely on Paul's early readers as to what Paul really meant. I'm saying that if X is clearly understood by many of his early readers to teach A and not apparently clearly understood by any of his early readers to teach not-A then this does not prove that X did not teach not-A but it does show that X did not explicitly/clearly/unambiguously teach not-A. This seems true almost by definition. Andrew Criddle |
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