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Old 09-14-2007, 08:15 AM   #1
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Default Question: destruction of Temple in Jerusalem and Gospels refering to it?

I am not a bible expert. But from what i been reading. We are very positive that the The Second Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed by the Romans in 70A.D.
And i also read that alot of bible scholars, date the gospels after 70 A.D. using other means.
From my understanding they don't mention the destruction of the temple, quite the opposite in Matthew that has Jesus understood by Christians to be still predicting the destruction. Would that have been a significant enough event to be mentioned in the Gospels if they were really written after 70 A.D?
Or since it was a jewish temple Christians didnt give a hoot anymore?
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Old 09-14-2007, 08:30 AM   #2
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Originally Posted by SashaTheMan View Post
I am not a bible expert. But from what i been reading. We are very positive that the The Second Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed by the Romans in 70A.D.

And i also read that alot of bible scholars, date the gospels after 70 A.D. using other means.

From my understanding they don't mention the destruction of the temple, quite the opposite in Matthew that has Jesus understood by Christians to be still predicting the destruction. Would that have been a significant enough event to be mentioned in the Gospels if they were really written after 70 A.D?
Or since it was a jewish temple Christians didnt give a hoot anymore?
Bible scholars regard the "predictions" of the destruction of the Temple as written after the actual destruction, and use this to infer that the gospels were written after 70 CE.

Christians in 70 CE would probably have considered themselves a sect of Judaism. So the Temple would have been important.
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Old 09-14-2007, 08:49 AM   #3
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Originally Posted by SashaTheMan View Post
I am not a bible expert. But from what i been reading. We are very positive that the The Second Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed by the Romans in 70A.D.
And i also read that alot of bible scholars, date the gospels after 70 A.D. using other means.
From my understanding they don't mention the destruction of the temple, quite the opposite in Matthew that has Jesus understood by Christians to be still predicting the destruction. Would that have been a significant enough event to be mentioned in the Gospels if they were really written after 70 A.D?
What do you think the rending of the curtain in the temple which unveiled the holy of the holies represented? This was the overthrow of the temple. The holy of holies was opened for all to see. The priests were now superfluous. The temple cultus was gone.

But Jesus lived before then, right? so the temple must have been standing when he was alive, right? However, apocryphal books such as Baruch deal with a temple standing at the narrative time when the text was written, even though they were written after the fall of the temple.

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Or since it was a jewish temple Christians didnt give a hoot anymore?
What we are dealing with is something technically known as vaticinium ex eventu, ie prophecy after the event. Consider, however, that Jesus reputedly dead around 30 CE, prophecies that the temple would be destroyed. Few of those who were around at the time of the reputed prophecy would have been around 40 years later when the temple was actually destroyed (life expectancy was generally much shorter than today), so what would the value of such a prophecy have been, when few, if any, who might have heard it ever saw it being fulfilled? It's material for the literary reader, reading after the event.


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Old 09-14-2007, 08:54 AM   #4
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Romans kicked ass and took names
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Old 09-14-2007, 10:23 AM   #5
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by SashaTheMan View Post
I am not a bible expert. But from what i been reading. We are very positive that the The Second Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed by the Romans in 70A.D.

And i also read that alot of bible scholars, date the gospels after 70 A.D. using other means.

From my understanding they don't mention the destruction of the temple, quite the opposite in Matthew that has Jesus understood by Christians to be still predicting the destruction. Would that have been a significant enough event to be mentioned in the Gospels if they were really written after 70 A.D?
Or since it was a jewish temple Christians didnt give a hoot anymore?
Quote:
Bible scholars regard the "predictions" of the destruction of the Temple as written after the actual destruction,
It's more convenient that way. You can avoid the embarrassment of Jesus making a documented, fulfilled prophecy, and have room for all sorts of stories about how the gospels got adulterated because written so late, as well.
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Old 09-14-2007, 10:28 AM   #6
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It's not so much "convenient" as favoring an explanation that doesn't invoke magic.
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Old 09-14-2007, 10:32 AM   #7
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If he had made a prophecy and it came true, it could have been a good guess, or a reasonable extrapolation from current trends. That would hardly be enough to convert a skeptic to Christianity.

But since we know of a lot of instances where prophecies were written after the fact, and we have no known instances of people able to actually see the future, the more reasonable interpretation is that the gospels were written after 70CE.

Besides which, a description of a fulfilled prophecy in religious literature is hardly "documented," especially when there is no record of that religious literature until well after the events.

There are other literary clues that place the gospels later. E.g., the round stone closing the tomb was characteristic of post-70 CE graves, not pre-70 CE.
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Old 09-14-2007, 10:40 AM   #8
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Christians in 70 CE would probably have considered themselves a sect of Judaism.

Christians in 71 CE would have been highly motivated to distance themselves from Judaism. The Romans were still pulling the bodies off their spear points.
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Old 09-14-2007, 10:51 AM   #9
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It's not so much "convenient" as favoring an explanation that doesn't invoke magic.
Let's re-write that, perhaps a little more objectively.

It's not so much convenient as favoring an explanation that doesn't invoke the supernatural.

Just as convincing?
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Old 09-14-2007, 11:32 AM   #10
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If he had made a prophecy and it came true, it could have been a good guess, or a reasonable extrapolation from current trends. That would hardly be enough to convert a skeptic to Christianity.

But since we know of a lot of instances where prophecies were written after the fact, and we have no known instances of people able to actually see the future, the more reasonable interpretation is that the gospels were written after 70CE.
I believe also that the references to the destruction of the Temple in Mark are likely prophecy ex eventu but I think people generally misread the full intent of the original narrative gospel. Mark was fully aware that the "prophetic" nature of the Spirit allegorized as Jesus is transient and illusory. When the Spirit is captured by "men" in Gethsemane, Jesus loses his supernatural gifts, and his captors know it (Mk 14:65). What Mark is alluding to, I suspect, are the psi phenomena of clairvoyance - the sudden envisioning of what the parapsychologists call "non-local reality". Here is a rather famous historical example of an empowered psycho:

Quote:

from The Book of Days:

A letter written by the celebrated philosopher Kant, in 1764, and which is published in his Works, gives the following curious details regarding Swedenborg, of whose possession of an extraordinary gift he considers it an indubitable proof.

'In the year 1756,' says he [the true date, however, was 1759], 'when M. de Swedenborg, towards the end of February, on Saturday, at 4 o'clock p.m., arrived at Gottenburg from England, Mr. William Costel invited him to his house, together with a party of fifteen persons. About 6 o'clock, M. de Swedenborg went out, and after a short interval returned to the company quite pale and alarmed. He said that a dangerous fire had broken out in Stockholm at the Suderhalm (Stockholm is about 300 miles from Gottenburg), and that it was spreading very fast. He was restless and went out often: he said that the house of one of his friends, whom he named, was already in ashes, and that his own was in danger. At 8 o'clock, after he had been out again, he joyfully exclaimed, "Thank God! the fire is extinguished the third door from my house." This news occasioned great commotion through the whole city, and particularly amongst the company in which he was. It was announced to the Governor the same evening. On the Sunday morning, Swedenborg was sent for by the Governor, who questioned him concerning the disaster. Swedenborg described the fire precisely, how it had begun, in what manner it had ceased, and how long it had continued. . . On the Monday evening, a messenger arrived at Gottenburg, who was dispatched during the time of the fire. In the letters brought by him, the fire was described precisely in the manner stated by Swedenborg. On Tuesday morning, the royal courier arrived at the Governor's with the melancholy intelligence of the fire, of the loss it had occasioned, and of the houses it had damaged and ruined, not in the least differing from that which Swedenborg had given immediately after it had ceased, for the fire was extinguished at 8 o'clock.'

Kant adds:

'What can be brought forward against the authenticity of this occurrence? My friend, who wrote this to me, has not only examined the circumstances of this extraordinary case at Stockholm, but also about two months ago, at Gottenburg, where he is acquainted with the most respectable houses, and where he could obtain the most complete and authentic information.'
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