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#1 | |||
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Join Date: Nov 2005
Location: England
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So is there any support for partial preterism in early Christianity? Are there any apocryphal works or church fathers who teach it? Please note: I am aware that some church fathers certainly do connect some of the Olivet Discourse with the destruction of Jerusalem in the first century. What I am interested in here, are the specific verses of Matthew 24:30-31. Are these said to be fulfilled in the first century? Also, if anyone knows of relevant apocryphal works that connect with these verses I am interested in that whether they suggest a first century fulfillment or not. I know of the Didache: Quote:
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#2 |
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Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: Texas
Posts: 932
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If partial preterists are not inerrantists and will concede some late authorship and pseudepigrapha, they must account for 2 Peter. If written after 70 CE, how can they explain that the author acknowledged in chapter 3 that Jesus has not fulfilled the Olivet discourse.
If they maintain Peterine authorship and a pre-70 date, further discussions would be fruitless. |
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#3 |
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Join Date: Jan 2003
Location: Bli Bli
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You could try at the preterist archive
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