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Old 02-04-2005, 11:43 AM   #1
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Default Broken bones of jesus

One of the major bible prophecies is that the bones of the messiah must not be broken.I read in another debate website an interesting question.The credit goes to whoever posted it.It asks how a nail can enter feet and wrists without piercing the bone.If it pierces isnt that a hairline fracture?How is the prohecy fulfilled then?

Any ideas?
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Old 02-04-2005, 11:50 AM   #2
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Originally Posted by sampath
One of the major bible prophecies is that the bones of the messiah must not be broken.I read in another debate website an interesting question.The credit goes to whoever posted it.It asks how a nail can enter feet and wrists without piercing the bone.If it pierces isnt that a hairline fracture?How is the prohecy fulfilled then?

Any ideas?
Do you have a reference for such a prophecy? AFAIK, there was a ritual prohibition against any "blemishes" on the Paschal Lamb, or sacrifices in general.
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Old 02-04-2005, 12:29 PM   #3
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I believe it is Psalm 34:20 that is interpreted as a messianic prophecy about Jesus:

"He keepeth all his bones: not one of them is broken." (KJV)
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Old 02-04-2005, 03:47 PM   #4
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Originally Posted by sampath

Any ideas?
I guess I'm struck by the absurdity of it all. God floods the entire world because people are wicked. Vanquishes armies. Parts seas. Impregnates virgins and etc.


But then he lets himself get nailed on a cross and we're supposed to believe that he's really God because his bones weren't broken. Way to go, God!
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Old 02-05-2005, 04:21 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sampath
One of the major bible prophecies is that the bones of the messiah must not be broken.I read in another debate website an interesting question.The credit goes to whoever posted it.It asks how a nail can enter feet and wrists without piercing the bone.If it pierces isnt that a hairline fracture?How is the prohecy fulfilled then?

Any ideas?
Well it is possible for a nail to go through the feet and wrists without breaking a bone. My friend stood on a big rusty nail at work and it went right through the foot without damaging any bones. Similarly, there is sufficient room for a nail to pass between the radius and the ulna.

The main point is that Jesus didn't need to have his legs broken as he died pretty quickly. Roman soldiers used to break the legs of crucifed victims to so that they could no longer push themselves up to breath.

What is more interesting is whether this is a prophecy or not. I believe this is one of the many cases of taking one single verse out of context. The preceding verses are:

17 The righteous cry out, and the LORD hears them;
he delivers them from all their troubles.
18 The LORD is close to the brokenhearted
and saves those who are crushed in spirit.
19 A righteous man may have many troubles,
but the LORD delivers him from them all;
20 he protects all his bones,
not one of them will be broken.

Which to me says that God will protect anyone who is righteous, that is all. Because it is a Psalm there is a lot of poetic imagery which should not be taken literally.
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Old 02-05-2005, 09:20 AM   #6
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I thought it had to do with the sacrificial lamb used for the passover sacrifice and how Jesus was to represent a sacrifice.

Exodus 12:46 " It must be eaten inside one house, take none of the meat outside the house. Do not break any of the bones."
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Old 02-05-2005, 11:03 AM   #7
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Originally Posted by KenLynch
What is more interesting is whether this is a prophecy or not. I believe this is one of the many cases of taking one single verse out of context.
A very good point; I have my doubts as to whether Jews - past or present - would interpret this passage or similar ones as messianic prophecies. I suppose it just reinforces the idea that, if you really want to know how to interpret the HB, ask a Christian

What I find personally fascinating is the idea that Crossan discusses (Birth of Christianity, maybe?). IIRC, the basic point is that the Gospel authors could have constructed the entire account of the passion by sifting through the HB for prooftexts and weaving them together in a scapegoat motif. This would, in turn, imply that none of the Gospel authors had reliable information on the events leading to the crucifixion, let alone eyewitness knowledge of them. In fact, both Matthew and Mark flatly state that all the disciples fled upon Jesus's arrest.
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Old 02-05-2005, 11:34 AM   #8
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Originally Posted by johntheapostate
I thought it had to do with the sacrificial lamb used for the passover sacrifice and how Jesus was to represent a sacrifice.

Exodus 12:46 " It must be eaten inside one house, take none of the meat outside the house. Do not break any of the bones."
That is part of it, but in John 19:36 the author seems to be paraphrasing the Psalm:

These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: "Not one of his bones will be broken,"
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