FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 09-13-2011, 02:21 PM   #171
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2011
Location: Northern Ireland
Posts: 1,305
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
Quote:
Tertullian pauses during the quote at just the part which would involve the 'receive',
But that's how the Patristic writings cite text. I think part of the problem archibald and Ted have is a result of a general unfamiliarity with the genre. This is true with respect to παραλαμβανω but also evident here with archibald's approach to Tertullian.
Sure point taken. I know where my limitations are. :]

It was just a query, in case. The reason I thought there had to be an 'in case' is because....of my not being as familiar......so.....I'm puzzled as to why others (say spin, or Toto perhaps, or someone else) didn't make this now seemingly potent point in the interpolation thread, or even seem to note when you raised it (which I think you did, briefly).....so...I guess I was trying to anticipate a possible shortcoming and guessing what it could be.

Incidentally, I still don't see Paul claiming anything about the source of his gospel in v6-7, but not for the same reason as Ted, I think. The 'which is not another' gospel seems, in some translations, to be taken to mean 'which is not a proper gospel' and so relates to the 'false' gospel of the 'opponents, but this doesn't shed any light in relation to what you said. Out of curiosity, could you clarify? I'm not questioning that 'Paul' does claim it, later, in v12.
archibald is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 02:54 PM   #172
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2011
Location: Northern Ireland
Posts: 1,305
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM View Post
archibald, see my post above...a great link : http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...ena/index.html

Irenaeus has the same quote --BUT he references a list of other witnesses BUT they were 'to God after the resurrection'. What do you make of that? Very strange wording..
Couple of things.

You may know more about dates than me. But, assuming Iraneus was c180 CE, that does seem to set a marker (assuming we can trust the source) for a point when the bulk of vv3-5 were 'in', but when 'which I also received' was 'not in'. Which, if true, is a valuable piece of the puzzle.

I also wonder, if Iraneus was not exactly a teenager at that time (died in 202 I think, though not sure when born), then presumably he wasn't reading the material for the first time in say 180. Presumably he was familiar with it earlier in his life. Which would seem to narrow the 'window of interplating opportunity' even a bit more. I'm sure some have candidates for who the interpolator might have been, or at least when (and as I keep wondering, how) the interpolation (or interpolations) might have been effected. And perhaps even more importantly, for the wider HJ/MJ debate, why. What is there, to make us think that anybody was countering an 'MJ heresy', for example? I only refer to this 'overarching' issue as an example, not because anyone has strongly cited it in either of the threads to do with 1 Cor 15.

Is there any reason to think that? Even Marcion's 'docetic' phantom, going by Tertullian's reaction, was an earthly phantom, it seems. Not human, just looked like one.

I repeat, I am not averse to thinking that there could have been interpolations prior to the Ms that are extant.

Regarding spin's en-block hypothesis, it isn't clear whether he necessarily meant 'en-block in one go'. He can clarify this, but I'm wondering if he did mean 'in one go' and whether this is why he hadn't cited Tertullian, or Iraneus, since it seems odd not to have played what looks like a strong card.

Same goes for Toto's '50% addition' hypothesis, in that he hasn't said if he meant 'in one go', though I do confess, I am sceptical about such an extensive claim, even if it were carried out piecemeal, or how he feels confident which half is 'in' and which is not. But Toto is going to elaborate, and like everything else, it is probably not impossible. I'm hoping it's something more than speculation based on one possible/plausible hypothesis, since it seems that criteria is useful for any one of at least a hundred possible hypotheses. And I don't mind anyone having a personal favourite. It just escapes me why anyone would approach anything like confidence, in the absence of any 'hard' evidence. It just doesn't seem like rational scepticism, for starters. :]

As for the 'god' reference, my initial reaction was to think that the terms were interchangeable for the writer, therefore rendering it not odd.
archibald is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 03:04 PM   #173
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM View Post
If Paul didn't originally use the word, then spins use of the meaning of παραλαμβανω to support his argument for an entire block interpolation fails: some--maybe the most important parts--of that block was there before that interpolation. He appears to be depending on the meaning of this word quite a bit to support his 'complete block interpolation' theory. What a shocker if it turns out that word wasn't part of that block in the first place!
Once you admit interpolation, then attempts at saving any of the passage fail as arbitrary. Well, maybe this bit is an interpolation, but I think this other bit isn't. OK, I admit that there's a problem with the abortion reference and there's a problem with the use of παραλαμβανω, but despite the fact "that the passage makes pretty good sense without 3-11", I believe most of it is kosher.
spin is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 03:17 PM   #174
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2011
Location: Northern Ireland
Posts: 1,305
Default

If that's not your best shot, I think you need to have another go.
archibald is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 03:22 PM   #175
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2005
Location: USA, Missouri
Posts: 3,070
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Once you admit interpolation, then attempts at saving any of the passage fail as arbitrary. Well, maybe this bit is an interpolation, but I think this other bit isn't. OK, I admit that there's a problem with the abortion reference and there's a problem with the use of παραλαμβανω, but despite the fact "that the passage makes pretty good sense without 3-11", I believe most of it is kosher.
Ok, but once you start speculating on multiple interpolations, you multiply the problems associated with successfully integrating them--ie it is more difficult for more than one interpolation of a passage to be integrated than just one in a given time period.



Quote:
Originally Posted by archibald View Post

You may know more about dates than me. But, assuming Iraneus was c180 CE, that does seem to set a marker (assuming we can trust the source) for a point when the bulk of vv3-5 were 'in', but when 'which I also received' was 'not in'. Which, if true, is a valuable piece of the puzzle.
Yep.

Quote:
I also wonder, if Iraneus was not exactly a teenager at that time (died in 202 I think, though not sure when born), then presumably he wasn't reading the material for the first time in say 180. Presumably he was familiar with it earlier in his life. Which would seem to narrow the 'window of interplating opportunity' even a bit more.
Yes, the juicy bits were there already.

Quote:
And perhaps even more importantly, for the wider HJ/MJ debate, why. What is there, to make us think that anybody was countering an 'MJ heresy',
Not sure. Spin's angle seems more focused on catholic orthodox -- putting Paul in his place.


Quote:
Regarding spin's en-block hypothesis, it isn't clear whether he necessarily meant 'en-block in one go'. He can clarify this, but I'm wondering if he did mean 'in obne go' and whether this is why he hadn't cited Tertullian, or Iraneus, since it seems odd not to have played what looks like a strong card.
Yep.


Quote:
As for the 'god' reference, my initial reaction was to think that the terms were interchangeable for the writer, therefore rendering it not odd.
That would be a good solution. They are interchangeable but it seems odd given the context of the entire para and his typical use of Lord or "Son" when referring to Jesus as something other than Jesus or Christ.
TedM is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 04:17 PM   #176
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Once you admit interpolation, then attempts at saving any of the passage fail as arbitrary. Well, maybe this bit is an interpolation, but I think this other bit isn't. OK, I admit that there's a problem with the abortion reference and there's a problem with the use of παραλαμβανω, but despite the fact "that the passage makes pretty good sense without 3-11", I believe most of it is kosher.
Ok, but once you start speculating on multiple interpolations, you multiply the problems associated with successfully integrating them--ie it is more difficult for more than one interpolation of a passage to be integrated than just one in a given time period.
Your comment is not relevant to what you were responding to. I gave no hint of multiple interpolations in 1 Cor 15:3-11, just multiple indications of one interpolation, which you to varying degrees acknowledge.
spin is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 04:20 PM   #177
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2011
Location: Northern Ireland
Posts: 1,305
Default

I think some comment or clarification on the Tertuullian/Iraneus thing is needed, at this point, from you, Spin. Otherwize, it appears that the 'which I also received' may be read as evidence of a separate interpolation for this phrase.
archibald is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 04:21 PM   #178
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: seattle, wa
Posts: 9,337
Default

Tertullian's citation is not the same as the Vulgate:

Quote:
Tradidi enim vobis in primis quod et accepi: quoniam Christus mortuus est pro peccatis nostris secundum Scripturas et quia sepultus est, et quia resurrexit tertia die secundum Scripturas

Tradidi enim, inquit, vobis in primis, quod Christus mortuus sit pro peccatis nostris, et quod sepultus sit, et quod resurrexerit tertia die. [Against Marcion 3.8]
Now to see other Latin citations of 1 Corinthians.
stephan huller is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 04:24 PM   #179
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2011
Location: Northern Ireland
Posts: 1,305
Default

Stephan, some of us farties are now scrabbling around the net for a translator. :]

Aha!

Latin: Tradidi enim vobis in primis quod et accepi : quoniam Christus mortuus est pro peccatis nostris secundum Scripturas :

KJV: For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;


http://wikichristian.org/index.php/B...rinthians_15:3

That's one of 'em.
archibald is offline  
Old 09-13-2011, 04:30 PM   #180
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: seattle, wa
Posts: 9,337
Default

Important note:

Quote:
1 Cor. 15:3 -- o kai parelabon omitted by b Ambrosiaster Irenaeus(lat) Tertullian
http://www.skypoint.com/members/walt...NonInterp.html

This just about settles it. Irenaeus's Latin text is pretty significant. It seems to confirm a tradition. The Ambrosiaster is also very significant as it is a commentary on all the Epistles of St. Paul, with the exception of that to the Hebrews which is pre-Jeromian. The indication then is that the early Latin text agreed with what must have been the Marcionite reading here. Case closed.
stephan huller is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 07:12 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.