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Old 09-19-2010, 08:02 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
I'm not sure why you are so disappointed in this explanation of an apparent inconsistency between the accounts of Paul's vision in Acts 9 & 22.
It disappoints me in part because of the statistics provided by DBT, which suggest that Acts is being treated by translators as a special case.


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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
In Greek, it is the norm to indicate the hearer understood what was communicated by having the verb AKOUW (akouO) take a noun in the accusative case.
You yourself posted some time ago saying that "classically" this is the case. The impression I have formed is that this behaviour of akouw is only definitely true of classical Greek, and that it is inconsistently applied in Koine. I dislike the idea that the writer of Acts would have placed so much burden on a fading grammatical distinction.

But as you might gather, my command of Greek is rudimentary. If you feel very strongly that I'm off my rocker, I'll defer to that.


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I think the idea that the grammar is conveying is that this verb, when taking a noun in the accusative, surely indicates the hearer understood what was communicated, and when it does not, then you have to rely on context to determine this.
My issue is not with what the grammar was trying to convey. The distinction itself is fairly clear to me. But the reason for making the distinction in the first place, based on what I could decipher from the arguments, seemed circular.

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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
Since I don't have access to Robertson's grammar, perhaps you can give a little more info.
It's in the public domain. I'm almost sure I got it from this page. It should be on archive.org as well.
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Old 09-19-2010, 11:01 AM   #12
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According to A Greek English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Wm Arndt & Wilbur Gingrich, 1957):

Acts 9:7 is associated with AKOUW (hear), definition 1 (literally of sense perception), b (with object), γ - gamma (followed by a thing as object in genitive case): hear something. Act 9:7 (on the experience of Paul and his companions cf. Maximum Tyrius - 2nd century - 9,7 d-f: some see a divine figure, others see nothing but hear a voice, still others see and hear). But cf. Rob. 506 for the view that the difference in cases between 9:7 & 9:22 is important.

Acts 22:9 is associated with AKOUW (hear), definition 1 (literally of sense perception), b (with object), α - alpha (followed by a thing as object in accusative case): the message being heard. Often the object [is not included in the sentence and] is to be supplied by context

Those two passages go like this:

Acts 9:3b ... exaiphnês (suddenly) te (and) auton (him) periêstrapsen (flashing-around) phôs (light) ek (out-of) tou (the) ouranou(heaven) ... 4 kai (and) pesôn (having fallen) epi (upon) tên (the) gên (earth/ground) êkousen (he-heard) phônên (sound/voice) legousan (saying) autô (to him) ... 7 hoi (the) de (but) andres (men) hoi (the-ones) sunodeuontes (journying-with) autô (him) heistêkeisan (had-stood) eneoi (speechless), akouontes* (hearing) men (on-the-one-hand) tês (the - in genitive case) phônês (sound/voice - in genitive case) mêdena (no-one) de (on-the-other-hand) theôrountes (seeing)

*akouontes, verb participle present active nominative masculine plural

Here, in the author's narrative, the verb AKOUW is in the form of a participle, but takes nouns as objects in the genitive case. All we can ascertain is that the men around Paul heard the same sound as Paul, and that Paul took it as a voice speaking to him. However, we cannot determine from these sentences whether the men heard just a sound or also thought they heard a voice.

Acts 22:9b Now those who were with me saw the light but did not hear the voice of the one who was speaking to me.

Acts 22:9b ... hoi (the-ones) de (but) sun (together-with) emoi (me) ontes (being) to (the) men (on-the-one-hand) phôs (light) etheasanto (they viewed) tên (the = in the accusative case) de (on-the-other-hand) phônên (sound/voice = in the accusative case) ouk (not) êkousan* (they-heard) tou (the-one) lalountos (speaking) moi (to me).

*êkousan, verb indicative aorist active 3rd person plural

Here Paul is represented in direct speech, and the verb AKOUW (as êkousan) takes the noun FWNH (as tên phônên) as the object of the sentence, and this noun is in the accusative case. So here, Paul is made to explain that all of them saw a light and heard a sound (the word is in the singular, meaning either one voice or sound), but that while Paul thought the sound was a voice speaking to him, the others did not hear it that way.

I could not see any "numbers" in they post you referred to to back up the idea that interpreting this second passage in this way is some sort of special pleading. Robertson is right that in classical literature a form of AKOUW that "takes" an object in the accusative the object of the sentence understands what is being spoken. Koine is a somewhat simplified form of classical Greek (no dual form, some verbal forms are not used, etc), but it is always dependent upon classical Greek.

This is not really a good example of making an interpretation fit. I'd look at the Granville Sharp rule.

DCH


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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
I'm not sure why you are so disappointed in this explanation of an apparent inconsistency between the accounts of Paul's vision in Acts 9 & 22. The contradiction only exists in English, because our verb "to hear" relies entirely on context to indicate whether the hearer understood the meaning of what he heard. In Greek, it is the norm to indicate the hearer understood what was communicated by having the verb AKOUW (akouO) take a noun in the accusative case. Sure there are instances where nouns in other cases are taken when it is clear that the hearer understood what was said, but this was indicated by the context alone.

I think the idea that the grammar is conveying is that this verb, when taking a noun in the accusative, surely indicates the hearer understood what was communicated, and when it does not, then you have to rely on context to determine this.

If you could find instances where the verb AKOUW takes a noun in the accusative, but it is clear from context that the hearer did not understand, then you might have something. However, if there are such instances the grammar you are using should note them. Since I don't have access to Robertson's grammar, perhaps you can give a little more info.

DCH

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Originally Posted by dizzy View Post
Greetings, weary travelers. I've been thinking about something. Bear with me while I give some background.

You are all aware of the contradiction between Acts 9:7 and Acts 22:9. You may also be aware of the most sophisticated response by apologists. It consists of a grammatical argument over the use of the verb akouw. In Acts 9:7, the genitive case is used for the object of the verb, but in Acts 22:9 the accusative is used. This is important because of the following understanding:



Robertson says this in a section titled "Fading Distinction from Accusative". This is more than a little strained. The very title of the section admits that the distinction is only a strong one in classical Greek.

Five years ago, a poster by the name of DBT wrote this:



I haven't done the numbers myself, but I find this very convincing.

And now that we're on the same page, I want to ask my real question: Is all this circular? Have Robertson and other grammarians formed their opinion of how Greek was used, based on a need to harmonise the passages in Acts? In general, how much of our understanding of Koine Greek might have come from hair-splitting apologetics like this?

Can we trust our Christian grammarians?
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Old 09-19-2010, 02:49 PM   #13
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Those experts are mostly Christians, and I don't know if it makes sense to trust Christians to evaluate the arguments of other Christians.
Excuse me? What makes any hypothesis worth anybody's attention at all, if not the argument by which it is supported?
I regard evidence as more worthy than argument and capable of speaking for itself without argument. For example the hypothesis that there was an "Historical Jesus" is an hypothesis in ancient history supported by centuries of argument from traditional authority first publicised widely only in the fourth century codices of the Roman Emperor Constantine. As far as I can see, the hypothetical historical jesus has alot of arguments from authority running very fast before it but it has no evidence at all to support these arguments.
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Old 09-19-2010, 08:37 PM   #14
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On Koine Greek: Archaic Greek in a Modern World
Quote:
Romeyka [a dialect of modern Greek spoken in Trabzon on the Black Sea coast of Turkey] is proving a linguistic goldmine for research because of the startling number of archaic features it shares with the Koiné (common) Greek of Hellenistic and Roman times, spoken at the height of Greek influence across Asia Minor from the 4th century BC to the 4th century AD.

‘Although Romeyka can hardly be described as anything but a Modern Greek dialect,’ explains Dr Sitaridou, ‘it preserves an impressive number of grammatical traits that add an Ancient Greek flavour to the dialect’s structure – traits that have been completely lost from other Modern Greek varieties.’
While most of the people working on Koine Greek seem to be Christians, they are not all the same sect of Christians, and do not necessarily have the same interests. And Koine Greek is similar enough to ancient Greek and modern Greek to provide some check on accuracy. So I don't think that things are as bleak as you make out in the OP.
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Old 09-19-2010, 11:07 PM   #15
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Thanks so much for all the detail, David. For the time being I'll have to adjourn this discussion. It has reached the point of being slightly over my head.

I reserve the right to bump this thread a year from now, okay Toto?

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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
I'd look at the Granville Sharp rule.
Cheers for this.
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Old 09-19-2010, 11:34 PM   #16
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OK by me.
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Old 09-20-2010, 07:15 AM   #17
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Excuse me? What makes any hypothesis worth anybody's attention at all, if not the argument by which it is supported?
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
I regard evidence as more worthy than argument and capable of speaking for itself without argument.
Well, that would explain a thing or two.
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Old 09-20-2010, 07:26 AM   #18
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I regard evidence as more worthy than argument and capable of speaking for itself without argument.
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Well, that would explain a thing or two.
When my parents were still together, my dad used to lose all the arguments. One day he said, "I don't lose because I'm wrong. I lose because you're better with words than I am."

Somehow relevant.
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