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Old 07-03-2007, 06:09 AM   #41
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That is because slavery is not an absolute evil, as theft or murder is.
But isn't slavery theft?

So to deprive a person of liberty (steal his freedom of action), categorising him as property, forcing him to do as its owner pleases, under penalty of death, is not an absolute evil?

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Either you have not noticed it, or you have chosen to ignore it.
Do yo mean the following?

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...ex-slaves living in worse conditions than they had experienced as slaves; they could be unemployed and wageless, with no social security, at a moment's notice. There was no owner's interest to protect them as a valuable investment.
So I see that for you the (supposed) economic stability (=minimal clothing, food to keep them functional, minimal shelter), which slavery brought to the slaves, justified it, because emancipation brought about some economic hardship during the phase of adjustment to the new conditions. I don't see how a period of economic hardship can be seen as worst than living under a system where one could be killed or punished savagely, where women/children could be raped, where anyone could be sold at any moment and separated from their family and friends, never to see them or hear about them again.

I must say that, not only your capacity of reasoning, but also your morality/value system seems highly flawed.
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Old 07-03-2007, 06:14 AM   #42
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I must say that, not only your capacity of reasoning, but also your morality/value system seems highly flawed.
You must?
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Old 07-03-2007, 06:34 AM   #43
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The argument as a whole seems to be a strawman, and might perhaps be reduced to:

1. Society in the west in the early 21st century objects to slavery.
2. The bible reflects a society in which slavery was a normal part of life.
3. This proves that the bible cannot be divinely inspired.

No doubt everyone can see the fallacies, petitio principi and non-sequiturs that litter each stage of this.
No, the argument is as follows:

1. The Bible is (according to believers), the ultimate and unsurpassable source of instruction towards moral behaviour, and the word of an all good, all wise God.

2. The Bible does not condemn slavery, but rather presents it as something acceptable.

3. Western society in the 21st century condemns slavery as immoral (after a thorough rational analysis of its socio-psychological connotations and consequences).

4. Modern Western ideology has therefore surpassed the Bible as a source of instruction towards moral behaviour.

5. The Bible is therefore not the ultimate, unsurpassable source of instruction towards moral behaviour, and its "author God", is not all good, nor all wise.

Your reduced argument was precisely that "reduced" - to nothing - and therefore a dysfunctional misrepresentation.
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Old 07-03-2007, 06:49 AM   #44
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The human condition (or fallen nature) is what makes the animal Man a slave to his own faculty of reason. In this sense is slavery native to Man with the only difference that liberation is not possible if the slave is also the master of the slave (eg. don't we insist that we have a mind of our own and are in charge of our own destiny). Notice that I spelled Man with a capital M to show that the master controls the volition or Man as if he was the owner of the Man. This is why the ego (the master) must be crucified to die after he is identified lest he returns to life and becomes an empowered imposter as if with one leg in heaven and one on earth (called midheaven in Rev. 14:6.
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Old 07-03-2007, 07:06 AM   #45
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A good, wise slave master was a benefit centre. It was always, in any age, much the best thing to look after your investment. Slaves usually had to be paid for, and a fit, healthy slave was necessary if long, continuous service was to be rendered. That meant that decent board and lodging arrangements were necessary, and a whole day off per week was mandatory for Israelites. It is possible that the life of a slave of the Israelites was in some cases preferable to that of a free person in other nations. In the case of slaves of the Roman Empire, many had responsible administrative jobs, and they could buy their freedom in time. Slavery was terrible for some people- criminals, in particular, but for many, it was possibly no worse than or superior to freedom in countries that were in constant tribal warfare or chronic poverty.
I wonder where you got this from.
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Old 07-03-2007, 08:02 AM   #46
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Clouseau, you are trying to have it both ways, but that doesn’t work. Rather it serves as another example of the incapacity of believers to reason.

Your claim that slavery was not proscribed in the Bible because the only other option was killing the captives is absurd.

The Bible was (according to believers), written by “God” as a guide of appropriate behaviour for his “chosen people”.

Had “God” considered slavery “evil”, he would have informed his “chosen people” that slavery was incorrect, and furthermore, he would have proscribed the killings of captives, thus eliminating the “only other choice” that you subscribe to.
And in some cases the bible does condemn some forms of slavery.

Deuteronomy 24

24:7 If a man be found stealing any of his brethren of the children of Israel, and maketh merchandise of him, or selleth him; then that thief shall die; and thou shalt put evil away from among you.


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Old 07-03-2007, 08:02 AM   #47
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Originally Posted by figuer View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse View Post
The argument as a whole seems to be a strawman, and might perhaps be reduced to:

1. Society in the west in the early 21st century objects to slavery.
2. The bible reflects a society in which slavery was a normal part of life.
3. This proves that the bible cannot be divinely inspired.

No doubt everyone can see the fallacies, petitio principi and non-sequiturs that litter each stage of this.
No, the argument is as follows:

1. The Bible is (according to believers), the ultimate and unsurpassable source of instruction towards moral behaviour, and the word of an all good, all wise God.
Lots of room for ambiguity in this...

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2. The Bible does not condemn slavery, but rather presents it as something acceptable.
Does it? Certainly room for argument here.

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3. Western society in the 21st century condemns slavery as immoral (after a thorough rational analysis of its socio-psychological connotations and consequences).
I do not believe that the values of those who control the media agenda in the west in the early 21st century can be considered any guide to morality or otherwise, and certainly did not arise rationally -- indeed I remember them being manufactured.

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4. Modern Western ideology has therefore surpassed the Bible as a source of instruction towards moral behaviour.
This seems to be a non sequitur, even on its own terms, tho.

But one may reasonably ask why the ideology of one part of the globe at one period of history is normative? And why this particular bit of history?

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5. The Bible is therefore not the ultimate, unsurpassable source of instruction towards moral behaviour, and its "author God", is not all good, nor all wise.
This also seems to be a non-sequitur, tho. Does it not also rely on the idea that the values of the selfish generation are the supreme good? -- not one I think one would wish to propose.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 07-03-2007, 09:04 AM   #48
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[A good, wise slave master was a benefit centre. It was always, in any age, much the best thing to look after your investment. Slaves usually had to be paid for, and a fit, healthy slave was necessary if long, continuous service was to be rendered. That meant that decent board and lodging arrangements were necessary, and a whole day off per week was mandatory for Israelites. It is possible that the life of a slave of the Israelites was in some cases preferable to that of a free person in other nations.
I would tend to agree with this statement in the context of classical societies. This is generally due to a much more limited concept of social mobility in these cultures. If one could not obtain some manner of land grant, through conquest, inhearitance etc and had no source of funds available, it was either slavery or banditry.


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That's exactly where you and most Americans are wrong. The American Civil War resulted in many ex-slaves living in worse conditions than they had experienced as slaves; they could be unemployed and wageless, with no social security, at a moment's notice. There was no owner's interest to protect them as a valuable investment. So think hard before you knock slavery; consider that you may be falling foul of capitalist propaganda, and bashing the Bible unwisely. The Bible's position is often far more intelligent than people give it credit for. In this case, as deduced, it is that slavery is undesirable, and certainly that the capture of non-combatant slaves is indefensible, but that it is simplistic and impractical to simply proscribe slavery generally.
But I disagree with the analogy to 19th century America. This reasoning is and was often used as a justification for bondage of African slaves. But this reasoning went hand in hand with the notion that Africans were too socially and biologically immature to take care of themselves without supervision.

The entire promise of America to all except the slave was the chance to make ones own fortune in the wilderness alone or in conjunction with others in small communities. There were plenty of good old Europeans who tried it and failed, starved, got scalped, drank themselves to death etc. The plains were filled with the bones of pioneers, but otherwise they were given the chance to try. Would it have been better to have the Europeans enslaved? Or perhaps all should have undergone an undergraduate course in indentured servitude, as was the custom at the very beginning of colonization.

To equate the options of individuals in classically rigid and heirarchal societies to the American experiment in liberty with vast frontier resources that could be exploited constitutes a false comparison.
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Old 07-03-2007, 09:06 AM   #49
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I do not believe that the values of those who control the media agenda in the west in the early 21st century can be considered any guide to morality or otherwise, and certainly did not arise rationally -- indeed I remember them being manufactured. But one may reasonably ask why the ideology of one part of the globe at one period of history is normative? And why this particular bit of history?
Modern Western moral values have been developed, and are still evolving, from centuries of human experience. They are not the product of "the media", they are the product of a humanist-empirical philosophical thought that has as its basis the search for a state of maximum individual happiness within maximum social harmony.

Their current normative character is gained by their effectiveness in achieving the stated goals.
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Old 07-03-2007, 09:26 AM   #50
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse View Post
I do not believe that the values of those who control the media agenda in the west in the early 21st century can be considered any guide to morality or otherwise, and certainly did not arise rationally -- indeed I remember them being manufactured. But one may reasonably ask why the ideology of one part of the globe at one period of history is normative? And why this particular bit of history?
Modern Western moral values have been developed, and are still evolving, from centuries of human experience. They are not the product of "the media", they are the product of a humanist-empirical philosophical thought that has as its basis the search for a state of maximum individual happiness within maximum social harmony.
You are certainly welcome to believe this if you wish, but rather a lot of people disagree, as you probably know.

If the values are 'evolving', of course, can the current (and so provisional) set be used for anything? Things evolve and degenerate. How can we tell?

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Their current normative character is gained by their effectiveness in achieving the stated goals.
I don't understand what you mean.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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