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07-03-2007, 06:09 AM | #41 | |||
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So to deprive a person of liberty (steal his freedom of action), categorising him as property, forcing him to do as its owner pleases, under penalty of death, is not an absolute evil? Quote:
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I must say that, not only your capacity of reasoning, but also your morality/value system seems highly flawed. |
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07-03-2007, 06:14 AM | #42 |
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07-03-2007, 06:34 AM | #43 | |
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1. The Bible is (according to believers), the ultimate and unsurpassable source of instruction towards moral behaviour, and the word of an all good, all wise God. 2. The Bible does not condemn slavery, but rather presents it as something acceptable. 3. Western society in the 21st century condemns slavery as immoral (after a thorough rational analysis of its socio-psychological connotations and consequences). 4. Modern Western ideology has therefore surpassed the Bible as a source of instruction towards moral behaviour. 5. The Bible is therefore not the ultimate, unsurpassable source of instruction towards moral behaviour, and its "author God", is not all good, nor all wise. Your reduced argument was precisely that "reduced" - to nothing - and therefore a dysfunctional misrepresentation. |
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07-03-2007, 06:49 AM | #44 |
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The human condition (or fallen nature) is what makes the animal Man a slave to his own faculty of reason. In this sense is slavery native to Man with the only difference that liberation is not possible if the slave is also the master of the slave (eg. don't we insist that we have a mind of our own and are in charge of our own destiny). Notice that I spelled Man with a capital M to show that the master controls the volition or Man as if he was the owner of the Man. This is why the ego (the master) must be crucified to die after he is identified lest he returns to life and becomes an empowered imposter as if with one leg in heaven and one on earth (called midheaven in Rev. 14:6.
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07-03-2007, 07:06 AM | #45 | |
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07-03-2007, 08:02 AM | #46 | |
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Deuteronomy 24 24:7 If a man be found stealing any of his brethren of the children of Israel, and maketh merchandise of him, or selleth him; then that thief shall die; and thou shalt put evil away from among you. CC |
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07-03-2007, 08:02 AM | #47 | ||||||
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But one may reasonably ask why the ideology of one part of the globe at one period of history is normative? And why this particular bit of history? Quote:
All the best, Roger Pearse |
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07-03-2007, 09:04 AM | #48 | ||
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The entire promise of America to all except the slave was the chance to make ones own fortune in the wilderness alone or in conjunction with others in small communities. There were plenty of good old Europeans who tried it and failed, starved, got scalped, drank themselves to death etc. The plains were filled with the bones of pioneers, but otherwise they were given the chance to try. Would it have been better to have the Europeans enslaved? Or perhaps all should have undergone an undergraduate course in indentured servitude, as was the custom at the very beginning of colonization. To equate the options of individuals in classically rigid and heirarchal societies to the American experiment in liberty with vast frontier resources that could be exploited constitutes a false comparison. |
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07-03-2007, 09:06 AM | #49 | |
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Their current normative character is gained by their effectiveness in achieving the stated goals. |
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07-03-2007, 09:26 AM | #50 | |||
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If the values are 'evolving', of course, can the current (and so provisional) set be used for anything? Things evolve and degenerate. How can we tell? Quote:
All the best, Roger Pearse |
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