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Old 10-09-2011, 04:55 PM   #1
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Default Parsimony, Occams Razor, etc. in the MJ/HJ hypothesis split from Gospel Eyewitnesses

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....You can go with that explanation, but the simpler explanation is that they were trying to promote Jesus as the Messiah to the readers and that they were describing what Jesus did and how Jesus died (albeit with very theologically driven motives and bias)....
Again, your statement is erroneous and shows that you are relying on imagination and have very little knowledge of what you promote.

Once Jesus was dead and was NOT KNOWN by the Jews as a Messiah there is NO WAY in the world he could be PROMOTED as a Jewish Messiah AFTER death.

The JEWS look for their EXPECTED MESSIAH among the LIVING not at the GRAVEYARD of dead men.

There is NO such thing as a POSTHUMOUS Jewish Messiah just like there is NO such thing as a POSTHUMOUS Emperor of Rome.

If a person was NOT the Emperor of Rome BEFORE death then surely they cannot be PROMOTED as Roman Emperor after death.

It should be completely OBVIOUS that if Jesus died and was UNKNOWN as the Messiah that the Jews either found their EXPECTED MESSIAH or was still looking among the living or those of the future.


Matt 16:20 -
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Then charged he his disciples that they should tell no man that he was Jesus the Christ...
The JEWS did NOT expect or PROMOTE their Messiah should come from a Graveyard.
And that, my friend, is one reason for why I believe Jesus was actually a real historical person. The Jews would not have made up this shit about a dead Messiah. But when the followers of Jesus saw that their Messiah actually did die without achieving the long awaited victory and triumph against the Roman oppressors, they had to come up with the Resurrection bit so that the Messiah title wouldn't be in vain.

They fantasized about his resurrection and they deluded themselves into believing he really did get resurrected.
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Old 10-09-2011, 09:01 PM   #2
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You can go with that explanation, but the simpler explanation
The simpler explanation to the question "where do babies come from?" involves a stork, as opposed to the biological complexiities of human reproduction.

Alas, a simpler explanation isn't always a correct one.

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is that they were trying to promote Jesus as the Messiah to the readers and that they were describing what Jesus did and how Jesus died (albeit with very theologically driven motives and bias).
Which raises the question: did those theologically driven motives and biases ever override this alleged desire for historical truth -- assuming such a desire existed in the first place? I don't see how anyone can study the Bible and not answer that question with a resounding "yes." Furthermore, in the interest of honesty, you'd have to quantify that with "yes -- all over the place."

In fact, we can read the individual Gospels and see where theological agendas and biases overrode even the most token attempts to portray the events as historical fact -- nobody can reconcile the events as history/biography without twisting their mind into a pretzel of special pleading.

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Your explanation demands evidence that they were meant to be taken, on the whole, allegorically and such. Luke 1:1-4 is one passage that goes against that assumption.
Funny how Luke 1:1-4 explicitly shoots down the notion of the Gospel writers being eyewitnesses, but plenty of sincere believers still cling on to that canard.

But it is funny that you bring up Luke 1:1-4, since it actually supports, not refutes, my assumption. Consider the following:

The word translated as "instructed" in verse 4 can also mean "catechized." And while many people assume that "Theophilius" in verse 3 is a proper name, the literal translation is "Lover of God" -- certainly a proper title for any fellow Christian.

Is it possible, then, that Luke's prologue reads, "Because many other people have described these things which we believe in, I, who has understood this all from the start, would like to tell the whole story to Christians who have only been catechized"? Could Luke be preparing to explain Christian tradition to new converts who, up until that point, have only gotten the short version?
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Old 10-09-2011, 09:07 PM   #3
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And that, my friend, is one reason for why I believe Jesus was actually a real historical person.
And who says he wasn't? Many skeptics may call his existence into question, but not here. Alas, existence alone is no evidence of miraculous stories (all of which were lifted from the Old Testament) and bodily resurrections.


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The Jews would not have made up this shit about a dead Messiah. But when the followers of Jesus saw that their Messiah actually did die without achieving the long awaited victory and triumph against the Roman oppressors, they had to come up with the Resurrection bit so that the Messiah title wouldn't be in vain.

They fantasized about his resurrection and they deluded themselves into believing he really did get resurrected.
Well that's a bit strong -- I think allegory and liturgy is a more plausible explanation than massive self-delusion. Just because modern Christians have a stunning capacity for self-delusion, doesn't mean the originals would've let it happen on the scale you're suggesting.

If the early Jewish followers of Christ were actually reading the gospels as history/biography, not one of them would've bought into such obvious horseshit.
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Old 10-09-2011, 09:34 PM   #4
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You can go with that explanation, but the simpler explanation
The simpler explanation to the question "where do babies come from?" involves a stork, as opposed to the biological complexiities of human reproduction.

Alas, a simpler explanation isn't always a correct one.
The stork is not an explanation that's in line with our observations and evidence.

Mythicists continue to misunderstand Occam's razor.

Nevermind that you're adding your thoughts to what Luke 1 says.
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Old 10-09-2011, 09:38 PM   #5
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If the early Jewish followers of Christ were actually reading the gospels as history/biography, not one of them would've bought into such obvious horseshit.
Go live in the same village I lived in then (in my homecountry). So many people there claim they saw the Virgin Mary appear to them on several occasions during a period of "miracles" and "faith healing" near the local church. This is not something I find hard to believe as I've seen how easy it is for people to be mass deluded.
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Old 10-10-2011, 12:33 AM   #6
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Gday,

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And who says he wasn't? Many skeptics may call his existence into question, but not here.
Pardon?
Several posters here, including myself, argue Jesus did not exist historically.


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Old 10-10-2011, 04:18 AM   #7
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You can go with that explanation, but the simpler explanation
The simpler explanation to the question "where do babies come from?" involves a stork, as opposed to the biological complexiities of human reproduction.

Alas, a simpler explanation isn't always a correct one.
The stork is not an explanation that's in line with our observations and evidence.

Mythicists continue to misunderstand Occam's razor.
Actually, Occam's Razor has nothing to do with it -- I am merely pointing out that the simplest explanation is not always the correct one. Agree or not?

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Nevermind that you're adding your thoughts to what Luke 1 says.
In an effort to discern its meaning, I am merely pointing out an alternative interpretation based on information that other such as yourself may not have been aware of. Let's not pretend that thinking is a liability.
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Old 10-10-2011, 04:23 AM   #8
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If the early Jewish followers of Christ were actually reading the gospels as history/biography, not one of them would've bought into such obvious horseshit.
Go live in the same village I lived in then (in my homecountry). So many people there claim they saw the Virgin Mary appear to them on several occasions during a period of "miracles" and "faith healing" near the local church. This is not something I find hard to believe as I've seen how easy it is for people to be mass deluded.
If you will recall I did make a distinction between modern Christians and the Earliest ones. I am of the opinion that because many modern Christians have completely lost the meaning behind their faith, they'll latch on to damn near anything that promises to provide some.
While I agree that this has also happened throughout history, it doesn't change the notion that the Gospel writers themselves were attempting something other than history/biography to their works. That there were, no doubt, people back then who didn't get the message doesn't mean that there weren't any who did.
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Old 10-10-2011, 05:43 AM   #9
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Ok. As you wish.
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Old 10-11-2011, 03:17 PM   #10
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The simpler explanation to the question "where do babies come from?" involves a stork, as opposed to the biological complexiities of human reproduction.

Alas, a simpler explanation isn't always a correct one.
The stork is not an explanation that's in line with our observations and evidence.

Mythicists continue to misunderstand Occam's razor.

Nevermind that you're adding your thoughts to what Luke 1 says.
I'm curious as to how Occam's razor applies to MJ vs HJ, and why mythicists don't understand it. As others have pointed out the razor is a tool, not a divining rod. My take is that MJ / HJ controversy is more a matter of how one interprets available evidence, not a matter of removing a non-essential part of the hypothesis.

As an example, a mythicist might argue that the "Jesus" legend is fraught with obviously mythical elements, including a virgin birth, a historically suspect massacre of the innocents, miracles galore, dead people coming back to life and the ascension. Obviously most of it is entirely fiction.

Since most of it is fiction why wouldn't the most parsimonious interpretation (Occam's Razor) be that all of it is fiction? HJ proponents need both a historical Jesus and a fictional Jesus. MJ proponents need only the fictional one.

I don't think this is a valid a use of Occam's Razor. I also fail to see how the razor can be applied in the other direction with success.
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