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Old 09-24-2006, 06:32 AM   #1
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Default What does 'only begotten son' imply?

Christ was God’s only begotten son.
But does not begotten imply a child born from the father’s seed?
If Paul was simply stealing a pagan story of a son begotten by a god and that is how the early Christians understood it, then it is ok to use the word. But if Mary was impregnated spiritually then why such a term?

What do the original manuscripts say? :wave:
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Old 09-24-2006, 07:14 AM   #2
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Paul doesn't say much about Jesus Christ's origins, other than that he was "of the seed of David" and "born of woman, born under the law", whatever that means. In fact, Paul's Christ may have been a sort-of god without an earthly career.

Mark starts with John the Baptizer baptizing a full-grown Jesus Christ.

Matthew and Luke trace Jesus Christ's ancestry back to King David, while claiming that Joseph was not his true biological father, and that it was the Holy Spirit who made Mary pregnant with Jesus Christ.

John has a rather metaphysical sort of origin of Jesus Christ as the "Word" (logos).


This "Son of God" bit may have started with Mark; he was likely relying on the Old Testament, where kings would metaphorically or adoptively be sons of God. But the authors of Matthew and Luke took that literally, and were likely also have been influenced by Greco-Roman mythology, with gods making lots of women pregnant with legendary heroes and even some real people.
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Old 09-24-2006, 07:16 AM   #3
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It used to be (and still may be) that the most readily quoted verse was John 3:16, which states:
Quote:
Originally Posted by John 3:16 (KJV)
For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son, that whosoever believeth in him shall not perish but have everlasting life.

{Emphasis Added}
John is the fourth gospel and is reputedly written by Jesus' disciple John.

Earlier in John (chapter 1, verse 12) it states that God gives those that believe "on his name" the power to "become the sons of God."

So, in some sense, "only begotten son" implies the distinction between adopted children and natural children -- in this case, between adopted children and one adopted child.

While most Christians, AFAIK, do not believe that God manifested himself as human and had congress with Mary, we might agree that in order for Jesus to be a real human that God may/must have fashioned the necessary biological components and implanted them. As such one might still use "only begotten son" to refer to the biology of it all.

Nevertheless, orthodoxy (small-o) understands that Jesus was eternally pre-existent. Again, John writes "in the beginning was the Word; and the Word was with God and the Word was God." Contextually, we understand this to Jesus. Paul, in the book of Colossians, writes that "by him all things consist". Elsewhere he writes, "in whom we live, move, and have our being."

IOW, "the only begotten" is very much God and that person of God that became man for us.

From here on, it gets very messy. People have been debating the nature of the Trinity since the concept was formulated (circa 150-200 C.E.). At this point, the Trinity becomes central to the discussion since it entails how the Father, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit can be one God (and how Jesus can be 100% human, too).

In short, my perception of the Trinity concept is this: If I can explain it to you (or myself) I have probably stumbled into an already-condemned heresy. That is, any satisfactory explanation is wrong -- only unexplainable mystery is accepted. (Even though I am a Christian, I find this state of affairs most unsatifactory.)

HTH

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Old 09-24-2006, 07:31 AM   #4
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Originally Posted by Tinker Grey View Post
In short, my perception of the Trinity concept is this: If I can explain it to you (or myself) I have probably stumbled into an already-condemned heresy. That is, any satisfactory explanation is wrong -- only unexplainable mystery is accepted.
This is cute as the notion of the trinity is post-biblical politics anyway, ie it has nothing to do with the bible, once one accepts the fact that the few trinitarian references in the christian testament are late additions according to the manuscript evidence. All the things proffered as evidence are either wishful or willful thinking.


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Old 09-24-2006, 07:33 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by hinduwoman View Post
Christ was God’s only begotten son.
But does not begotten imply a child born from the father’s seed?
If Paul was simply stealing a pagan story of a son begotten by a god and that is how the early Christians understood it, then it is ok to use the word. But if Mary was impregnated spiritually then why such a term?

What do the original manuscripts say? :wave:
:wave: In Christendom the first begotten son is called Christ. This child is the inner child that is reborn to the or any Catholic but must be Catholic for the simple reason that Mary is from Rome.

In Judaism where Mary was from Nazareth the inner child will be called "child of Israel." This child is destined to become Israel when fully man after the image of their God wherein it was created and conceived by the tradition whereby it was engendered. This kind of means that there will be no bastard children called Israel and thus no Buddha's there, or Catholics, for that matter, who have Nirvana and Heaven as their final destination.

Note that this rebirth is from God via Gabriel and thus not Moses or Billy Graham.
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Old 09-24-2006, 07:38 AM   #6
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And if Jesus was god's only begotten son, how could Jesus have been of the seed (sperma) of David?

The writer of GJohn, Paul and the writer of 2 Tim seem to think that Jesus is the seed of David, but then they didn't have the two conflicting genealogies of Joseph which tell us that Jesus wasn't of that seed.


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Old 09-24-2006, 07:53 AM   #7
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The need for a third part of the Trinity seemed to me to be more numerology than theology. Wasn't three considered the perfect number because it had a beginning, a middle and an end?

Chili: What is the source of the term "inner child" religiously speaking? It sounds like modern psychology. And the only connection Gabriel supposedly had with the incarnation of God was as the messenger announcing it to Mary.
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Old 09-24-2006, 08:00 AM   #8
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I don't get why Jesus was considered God's "son" while Adam wasn't.
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Old 09-24-2006, 08:23 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sbaii View Post
The need for a third part of the Trinity seemed to me to be more numerology than theology. Wasn't three considered the perfect number because it had a beginning, a middle and an end?

Chili: What is the source of the term "inner child" religiously speaking? It sounds like modern psychology. And the only connection Gabriel supposedly had with the incarnation of God was as the messenger announcing it to Mary.
It has always been my opinion that the doctrine of the trinity is an offshoot of Pythagorean mysticism via Plato's forms (Plato was much influenced by Pythagoras in this regard).

Quote:
Originally Posted by Scifinerdgrl
I don't get why Jesus was considered God's "son" while Adam wasn't.
Adam rebelled against God's authority and hence was cast out relinquishing any claim. Jesus could be looked upon as a replacement for Adam since he came to fulfill the law but that's not an orthodox interpretation. Orthodox believers would contend that Jesus is god, eternally present and so forth.
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Old 09-24-2006, 08:30 AM   #10
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It is all a huge theological concept, derived from magical thinking.

http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...81#post3527281

Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle
I know it ain't primary:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magical_thinking

except the tale of the termites and the house might be aposite!

Is this all not a classic magical cause and effect story? Christ comes in the likeness of humans to effect our salvation?

Browsing in Borders today, saw this

A Reader in the Anthropology of Religion

May I ask anyone who wants to pontificate that the Bible, the Greeks et al are not chock full of magical thinking kindly refute wiki and texts like the above.

I also want to strongly recommend Terry Jones' Barbarians.

Apart from discussing xian bishops in Persia in the 200's, he has a wonderful discussion about Ambrose in the 390's (Jones notes Constantine was baptised by an Arian Bishop!) when Catholicism was forced on the wicked arians of Constantinople, and a Catholic bishop later complained no one was attending communion, followed soon after by Cyril and his 500 equivalents of the Taliban!

Tampering of texts? After Eusebius most definitely! Well these catholics introduced the heresy of God being three and were proud to comment it was irrational. In fact they stated that to think rationally was pagan!

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if you remark the bath is nice, the attendant announces that the son was created out of nothing
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