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Old 09-05-2011, 03:29 AM   #1
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Default Galatians 1:4

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Originally Posted by Gal 1:4
who gave himself for our sins to rescue us from the present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father,
Quote:
Originally Posted by Gal 3:13
Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us
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Originally Posted by Gal 4:5
But when the set time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those under the law
It seems to me that one of these things is not like the other...

Atonement for sin, (which implies that the law is still binding), versus redemption from the law, (which seems to mean the nullification of the applicability of the law itself).

IMO, we have two distinct voices. Galatians, in fact, seems to be arguing with itself.
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Old 09-05-2011, 06:30 AM   #2
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gal 1:4
who gave himself for our sins to rescue us from the present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father,
Quote:
Originally Posted by Gal 3:13
Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us
Quote:
Originally Posted by Gal 4:5
But when the set time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those under the law
It seems to me that one of these things is not like the other...

Atonement for sin, (which implies that the law is still binding), versus redemption from the law, (which seems to mean the nullification of the applicability of the law itself).

IMO, we have two distinct voices. Galatians, in fact, seems to be arguing with itself.
The law defines sin and its cost. Christ giving himself to death, becoming a curse, pays the price of sin. He gives himself for everyone's sin, thus redeeming us. Whaddid I miss?
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Old 09-05-2011, 06:36 AM   #3
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It seems to me that one of these things is not like the other...

Atonement for sin, (which implies that the law is still binding), versus redemption from the law, (which seems to mean the nullification of the applicability of the law itself).

IMO, we have two distinct voices. Galatians, in fact, seems to be arguing with itself.
The law defines sin and its cost. Christ giving himself to death, becoming a curse, pays the price of sin. He gives himself for everyone's sin, thus redeeming us. Whaddid I miss?
Can one still sin? If so, then the law still applies.

A contradiction.
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Old 09-06-2011, 06:08 AM   #4
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The law defines sin and its cost. Christ giving himself to death, becoming a curse, pays the price of sin. He gives himself for everyone's sin, thus redeeming us. Whaddid I miss?
Can one still sin? If so, then the law still applies.

A contradiction.
"Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us". I don't think the publicity indicates a limited time offer.
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Old 09-06-2011, 07:26 AM   #5
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It seems to me that one of these things is not like the other...

Atonement for sin, (which implies that the law is still binding), versus redemption from the law, (which seems to mean the nullification of the applicability of the law itself).

IMO, we have two distinct voices. Galatians, in fact, seems to be arguing with itself.
The law defines sin and its cost. Christ giving himself to death, becoming a curse, pays the price of sin. He gives himself for everyone's sin, thus redeeming us. Whaddid I miss?
Can one still sin? If so, then the law still applies.

A contradiction.
There is NO doctrinal contradiction. Jesus Christ based on the Pauline writings is the NEW atonement for the sins of ALL MANKIND.

The Pauline writers are claiming Jesus Christ SUPERSEDES all other atonement and all other Laws regarding the Remission of Sins.

So, based on "Paul", if a person SINS multiple times then there is now no requirement to sacrifice multiple times as was done previously.

Of course, there is no credible evidence from antiquity to corroborate a single statement about Jesus by "Paul".

Non-apologetic sources of antiquity show that the Jews were still carrying out sacrifices based on the LAWS of their God up to 70 CE and did not mention any character called Jesus Christ who SUPERSEDED the commandments of their God or was believed to have the ability to NULLIFY the Laws of their God.
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Old 09-06-2011, 09:04 AM   #6
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Can one still sin? If so, then the law still applies.

A contradiction.
"Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us". I don't think the publicity indicates a limited time offer.
I completely agree, thus my problem.
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Old 09-06-2011, 09:55 AM   #7
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Can one still sin? If so, then the law still applies.

A contradiction.
"Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us". I don't think the publicity indicates a limited time offer.
I completely agree, thus my problem.
I'm having difficulty seeing the problem. If "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law", then the law is no longer applicable to the "us". Law defines sin, but the curse of the law has been taken by christ. This means that according to the law what one does can be classified as sin, but believers in christ are exempt from the law. So, problem?
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Old 09-06-2011, 10:08 AM   #8
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I completely agree, thus my problem.
I'm having difficulty seeing the problem. If "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law", then the law is no longer applicable to the "us". Law defines sin, but the curse of the law has been taken by christ. This means that according to the law what one does can be classified as sin, but believers in christ are exempt from the law. So, problem?
Again, you clearly stated the problem.

Christ died for our sins.

v.

Christ redeemed us from the Law.

I do not see these two things as being the same.
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Old 09-06-2011, 10:20 AM   #9
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I'm having difficulty seeing the problem. If "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law", then the law is no longer applicable to the "us". Law defines sin, but the curse of the law has been taken by christ. This means that according to the law what one does can be classified as sin, but believers in christ are exempt from the law. So, problem?
Again, you clearly stated the problem.

Christ died for our sins.

v.

Christ redeemed us from the Law.

I do not see these two things as being the same.
They are not.

Christ redeemed us from the Law... by dying for our sins.
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Old 09-06-2011, 10:23 AM   #10
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Or perhaps better yet what Christ established has the potential to liberate us from the authority of the Law but the Law is still binding upon those who have not received the mysteries of the Kingdom of God. An interesting phenomenon appears in the early Church where it can be reconstructed that a twofold division existed in the community, those who received the mysteries were likely 'above the law' while those of the body who were not yet perfected probably were still enslaved, having not yet been 'redeemed.'
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