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Old 11-19-2010, 10:41 AM   #1
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Default Is the Gospel of Mark "ungrammatical" or Smooth, Sualvific and Deboanerges?

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A common adjective for the Gospel of Mark, by Believers and Skeptics, is that it is "ungrammatical". As that great 20th century philosopher, ALF, said, "Look it up." (do a google search for "Gospel Mark" and "ungrammatical"). But, as that dickish king said prophetically in Braveheart when all his yes men told him what a great idea he had in bringing back ye olde English tradition of permitting the English nobility to rape Scottish brides on their wedding night, "Is it?".

The purpose of this Thread is to identify, question, determine and inventory the ungrammatical in the Gospel of "Mark". I fear that much of what is passed off as "ungrammatical" in "Mark" is better described as literary style and that Skeptics to some extent are just parroting the Believer claim that "Mark" is ungrammatical. Note that for starters this Thread is just dedicated to identifying potential ungrammatical in "Mark" and not literary style.

At the risk of being labeled a "radical" or even worse "socialist" I will now break forum tradition and decorum and provide a DEFINITION of "ungrammatical" in a really useless and futile attempt to avoid divergence/digression/indigestion for this Thread:

http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/ungrammatical

Quote:
not following rules of grammar
The advanced student may sense an anachronism already. Rules of grammar for Biblical Greek are a little hard to come by now let alone 2,000 years ago. Is Jeffery Gibson around? Dare I say that grammar rules were looser than than they are now? Anyway, based on known and projected usage (not limited to "common usage") of Biblical Greek, what grammatical errors has "Mark" made?

Speaking of Jeffery Gibson, he always reminds me of that Barber Shop scene in High Plains Drifter http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=t8sNeozweTM
where the guns hired to protect the town from the outlaws go and get themselves killed before the outlaws even show up. Where the hell is he when you really need him?


Joseph

GRAMMAR, n.
A system of pitfalls thoughtfully prepared for the feet for the self-made man, along the path by which he advances to distinction.[W]

ErrancyWiki
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Old 11-19-2010, 11:58 AM   #2
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Last edited by JoeWallack; Today at 03:56 PM. Reason: Corrected Grammatical Error
More Markan irony? :notworthy:
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Old 11-19-2010, 01:13 PM   #3
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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
Dare I say that grammar rules were looser than than they are now?
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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
Last edited by JoeWallack; Today at 01:56 PM. Reason: Corrected Grammatical Error
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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy
More Markan irony?
haha.
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Old 11-19-2010, 02:12 PM   #4
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I think that the charge against Mark is more that his Greek is rough or awkward.

Mark is written in Koine Greek. The Enlightenment scholars who first started to actually read and analyze the gospels were only familiar with classical Greek, and the gospels puzzled them. They initially described the language of the gospels as "holy ghost Greek." It was only with the discovery of a cache of ordinary commercial Egyptian papyri from the era that 18th and 20th century scholars were able to reconstruct Koine Greek. (This has been compared to the discovery of the Rosetta Stone.)

Was the bible written in street language?

CS Lewis, another classicist who picked up the NT, decided that the Greek of the gospels was so rough and uncultured that it stood as evidence that the gospels were written by simple fishermen, men who were too unsophisticated to do anything but tell the truth. I don't think that anyone would support this idea today.
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Old 11-19-2010, 02:27 PM   #5
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The Gospel of Mark: a socio-rhetorical commentary (or via: amazon.co.uk) By Ben Witherington, p. 21 (can be previewed on google books)

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Furthermore, Mark sometimes gives us combinations of Greek words that seem to be a rendering of Latin idioms connected with the trial in ungrammatical Greek (e.g., to ikanon poiew - satisfacere; 15:15)
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Old 11-19-2010, 02:33 PM   #6
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But could that primitive style have been deliberately so established much like the attempts at speaking "street parlance" by contemporary evangelists? Was that the purposed distinction of the gospel of "faith" which was publicly preached and the secret gospel? Is this the point of the confesseion in 1 Cor 2:1 - 6? I didn't use sophisticated language; it was enough to preach Christ crucified etc?
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Old 11-19-2010, 02:35 PM   #7
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Argument for Markan priority

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Streeter formed the argument in this way (op. cit., p. 29):
Matthew and Luke regularly emend awkward or ungrammatical sentences; sometimes they substitute the usual Greek word for a Latinism; and there are two cases where they give the literary equivalent of Greek words, which Phrynichus the grammarian expressly tells us belonged to vulgar speech. Lastly, there are eight instances in which Mark preserves the original Aramaic words used by our Lord. Of these Luke has none, while Matthew retains only one, the name Golgotha (27:33); though he substitutes for the Markan wording of the cry from the cross, "Eloi, Eloi..." the Hebrew equivalent "Eli, Eli..." as it reads in the Psalm (Mk. 15:34 = Mt. 27:46 = Ps. 22:1).
Kummel also makes use of this argument (op. cit., p. 58):

Quote:
But when the word usage of Matthew and Luke is compared with Mark, it is apparent either that Matthew and Luke have in large measure changed the colloquial or Semitic text of Mark into better Greek, and have done so in the same or similar ways, or that only Matthew or Luke has affected any such alteration: cf. the replacement of krabattoV (Mk. 2:4) by klinh (Matthew) or klinidion (Luke), or the change of the difficult construction ti outoV outwV lalei; blasfhmei (Mk. 2:7) in different ways by Matthew and Luke.
Styler provides a single example (op. cit., p. 69): Mk. 10:20 has efulaxamhn, which is gramatically incorrect. Mt. 19:20 reads the correct form, efulaxa.
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Old 11-19-2010, 02:40 PM   #8
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Usually the quality of the language is a good indication of the class of the individual who wrote it. While the person who wrote Mark was probably not a peasant, he was almost surely not in Tacitus' social class either.
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Old 11-19-2010, 03:19 PM   #9
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Originally Posted by David Deas View Post
Usually the quality of the language is a good indication of the class of the individual who wrote it. While the person who wrote Mark was probably not a peasant, he was almost surely not in Tacitus' social class either.
But are there not multiple versions of gMark?

Origen in "Against Celsus" claimed there were more than one version of gMark and that contrary to Mark 6.3 no Gospel during the time of Origen described Jesus as a Carpenter.

Mr 6:3 -
Quote:
Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.

"Against Celsus" 6.36
Quote:
...in none of the Gospels current in the Churches is Jesus Himself ever described as being a carpenter.....
"Against Celsus" 1.62
Quote:
...The Lebes also, who was a follower of Jesus, may have been a tax-gatherer; but he was not of the number of the apostles, except according to a statement in one of the copies of Mark's Gospel.
It must be that there were MULTIPLE authors of the different versions of gMark and that it is not known who was the the original author.

Unless the original gMark has been found, an arbitrary selection of one of the many authors may not reflect the writing style of the original author and original contents of gMark.
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Old 11-20-2010, 05:56 AM   #10
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Well, 'street parlance' means not inspired but just holy ghost fortified in places and I am not sure why you ppl believe that the Gospels should be evangelical. I call them testamonial with Matthew and Mark going back into purgation and Luke and John going onward to the city upon high.

Edit to add that that would sure freigthen the women who knew that that was not a good idea.
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