FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 03-01-2012, 01:13 AM   #311
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

I'm sure that having "Lane Fox" as a compound last name without a hyphen messes up some computerized systems. That's why there are a few instances of Lane-Fox.
Toto is offline  
Old 03-01-2012, 01:14 AM   #312
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Oct 2004
Location: Bordeaux France
Posts: 2,796
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv
What are the linguistic implications of "incarnate" AND "made man" in Greek, and does it definitively mean that the person took a physical human body?
1. "incarnate".
The greek word is : καὶ σαρκωθέντα
The root of this word is "sarx". Sarx = flesh, or (secondly) body.
There has been here a long discussion about the word "sarx", and perhaps you could find it in the archives.

2. "made man".
The greek word is : καὶ ἐνανθρωπήσαντα
The root of this word is "anthropos". Anthropos = human being, person (man or woman).
Huon is offline  
Old 03-01-2012, 04:41 AM   #313
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: UK
Posts: 3,057
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Huon View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Huon View Post
mother of god
Is that not contradiction in terms?
I have already written that there were also some male grim theologians who could not accept that a woman, even Mary, could be the mother of god.
It sounds a somewhat Catholic response, too.

Is 'grim' synonym for 'rational'?

Surely, in the context of Genesis 1, that which creates is deity? So Mary is YHWH? God, come to us in the flesh?
sotto voce is offline  
Old 03-01-2012, 05:41 AM   #314
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

Thank you. I guess this means there is no ambiguity. So we can still wonder why the word anthropos was insufficient to signify a physical being, requiring the word incarnate.Even without mention of birth from a woman as would be implied in Galatians 4 if the authors of the Creed knew about Galatians.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Huon View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv
What are the linguistic implications of "incarnate" AND "made man" in Greek, and does it definitively mean that the person took a physical human body?
1. "incarnate".
The greek word is : καὶ σαρκωθέντα
The root of this word is "sarx". Sarx = flesh, or (secondly) body.
There has been here a long discussion about the word "sarx", and perhaps you could find it in the archives.

2. "made man".
The greek word is : καὶ ἐνανθρωπήσαντα
The root of this word is "anthropos". Anthropos = human being, person (man or woman).
Duvduv is offline  
Old 03-01-2012, 03:39 PM   #315
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

So all that can be said here is that the author of the "original Nicene Creed" felt that being made a man was not definitive enough as a physical human body such that the author needed to also say he was incarnate as flesh.
The author either didn't care or didn't know that the Jesus figure was supposed to be born to Mary - perhaps the "official sources" didn't exist yet.
He was merely incarnate in the flesh as a physical person and "suffered" before "rising" and going straight up to heaven. And then return to judge the "quick" and the dead.
It does even say that he DIED and was RESURRECTED. Merely that he suffered and rose on the third day, which on its own could mean anything.

He is not intimated as a Jewish messiah figure at all. It almost sounds as if belief in his mere being on earth was and is salvation enough, regardless of anything else. On its own merits the original Creed could have emerged from any source or culture other than Judaism by far.
Duvduv is offline  
Old 03-04-2012, 07:01 AM   #316
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

Since the original Nicene Creed gives no indication that this religion grew out of Judaism or Judea or had anything to do with a messiah figure, is it possible that someone knowing nothing about the context of this Creed might identify it with a particular pagan cult, and if so, which one might the Creed most closely resemble of known Roman pagan cults?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Huon View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv
What are the linguistic implications of "incarnate" AND "made man" in Greek, and does it definitively mean that the person took a physical human body?
1. "incarnate".
Thde greek word is : καὶ σαρκωθέντα
The root of this word is "sarx". Sarx = flesh, or (secondly) body.
There has been here a long discussion about the word "sarx", and perhaps you could find it in the archives.

2. "made man".
The greek word is : καὶ ἐνανθρωπήσαντα
The root of this word is "anthropos". Anthropos = human being, person (man or woman).
Duvduv is offline  
Old 03-04-2012, 06:13 PM   #317
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
Since the original Nicene Creed gives no indication that this religion grew out of Judaism or Judea or had anything to do with a messiah figure, is it possible that someone knowing nothing about the context of this Creed might identify it with a particular pagan cult, and if so, which one might the Creed most closely resemble of known Roman pagan cults?

One might commence with a look at the Roman Emperors and their role as "Pontifex Maximus" and how they exercised it and what cult they preferred and how they glorified it etc

Quote:
Originally Posted by Extracted from Cambridge Ancient History Volume 12 OFFICIAL RELIGION


p.412

Religion in the Roman Empire was governed
by the princeps, as "Pontifex Maximus"
a member of all priestly colleges and
responsible for all public morals and well being.



The following is evidenced by coins and temple foundations:

Claudius: magnified the cult of Cybele.

Gauis: in Rome introduced Osiris (and other Egyptian deities accepted in Italy)

Vespasian: favored Isis and Sarapis.

Domitian: was a benefactor of Isis, Minerva and Jupiter

Hadrian: built the temple of Venus and restored many temples in Rome.

Severan Dynasty: sponsored Bacchus, Hercules and Sarapis.

Illyrian Dynasty: were devoted to Vesta.

Aurelian: built the temple of Sol Invictus, celebrated 25th December and established priestly colleges.

Diocletian: supported Sol Invictus, Isis, Sarapis, Jupiter and Hercules.

Another method might be an examination of coins ....

mountainman is offline  
Old 03-04-2012, 06:33 PM   #318
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

And which of those then might the original Creed of 325 most closely resemble?
Duvduv is offline  
Old 03-04-2012, 07:18 PM   #319
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
Default

The cult of the Creed Oath of 325 appears to be new and strange.

Somehow Moses pulled rank on Plato.
mountainman is offline  
Old 03-04-2012, 07:38 PM   #320
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

However I suggested that there is nothing Judaic in the words of the original Nicene Creed that could even be specifically identified with the NT texts. It could have reflected some other religion.
Duvduv is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 11:05 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.