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Old 03-06-2005, 10:18 AM   #1
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Default Anyone have more information about this?

I read that Korazin and Bethsaida which Jesus supposedly "damned", along with Capernaum were destroyed, while I guess cities nearby them, near the Sea of Galilee, weren't. So there is the claim that this was actually prophetic and fulfilled. I'm not entirely sure if he's saying entire cities will be collectively judged on the "day of judgment" or if he's referring to the individual people in them. Anyway, does anyone have more information about this? I don't really see Jesus saying these cities will be destroyed per se, he seems to just be talking about their fate on the "day of judgment". Any help is appreciated. Thanks.


Matthew 11: 20-24

20Then Jesus began to denounce the cities in which most of his miracles had been performed, because they did not repent. 21“Woe to you, Korazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. 22But I tell you, it will be more bearable for Tyre and Sidon on the day of judgment than for you. 23And you, Capernaum, will you be lifted up to the skies? No, you will go down to the depths.[d] If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Sodom, it would have remained to this day. 24But I tell you that it will be more bearable for Sodom on the day of judgment than for you.�
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Old 03-06-2005, 08:18 PM   #2
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The important thing to remember about this saying from Q is that it was probably added to Q after the Roman-Jewish war (CE 66-73 A.D.). For certain, we know that Matthew written well after the war and the destruction of these towns. Therefore, since the saying wasn't even written until "after the fact", it's hard to believe that we are dealing with a legitimate prophecy of Jesus (assuming Jesus ever existed in the first place). Rather, these words must have been attributed to Jesus with the knowlege that these towns had already been destroyed. The author of Q noted the fate of these towns and figured that he could that information to teach a lesson to the reader . He is saying "just look at what happens to those that refuse to believe!"

So, to answer your question, the "prophecy" about the "day of judgement" as ascribed to Jesus is probably referring to the destruction of these towns (because the readers of the gospel were probably aware that these towns had been annihilated). But, based on the evidence, it is highly likely that we are dealing with an after the fact prophecy, which means that it isn't a prophesy at all.
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Old 03-07-2005, 05:14 AM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by A Hull
The important thing to remember about this saying from Q is that it was probably added to Q after the Roman-Jewish war (CE 66-73 A.D.). For certain, we know that Matthew written well after the war and the destruction of these towns. Therefore, since the saying wasn't even written until "after the fact", it's hard to believe that we are dealing with a legitimate prophecy of Jesus (assuming Jesus ever existed in the first place). Rather, these words must have been attributed to Jesus with the knowlege that these towns had already been destroyed. The author of Q noted the fate of these towns and figured that he could that information to teach a lesson to the reader . He is saying "just look at what happens to those that refuse to believe!"

So, to answer your question, the "prophecy" about the "day of judgement" as ascribed to Jesus is probably referring to the destruction of these towns (because the readers of the gospel were probably aware that these towns had been annihilated). But, based on the evidence, it is highly likely that we are dealing with an after the fact prophecy, which means that it isn't a prophesy at all.
Thanks for the response. The thing is though, from what I have read, I'm not sure these cities were damaged/destroyed before this was written. According to this link on the secular web, these towns weren't ruined until much later
[http://www.infidels.org/library/mode...messianic.html:]
In this section McDowell tells of the fate of the 4 cities near the shores of the Sea of Galilee. These four cities were Capernaum, Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Tiberias. Three of these cities have perished. Only the last named is standing today. McDowell uses Matthew 11:20-24.

McDowell starts off this section by saying "A fulfilled New Testament prophecy is unique indeed". Does this mean that no other New Testament prophecy has been fulfilled? This is a surprising admission from someone who claims that Biblical prophecies are divinely guided.

As McDowell says that there are four towns near Galilee, it will come as no surprise that he mentions a fifth - Tabgha. There is a sixth - Gennesaret, near Capernaum. McDowell says that it was astonishing that no word was spoken about Tiberias and it is still standing. Well, no word was spoken about Tabgha or Gennesaret either so the fate of Tiberias is hardly unique.

What does McDowell say that Matthew 11:20-24 mean? He says that it means that Jesus prophesied that God's displeasure was visited on these towns. The towns were selected for destruction because the people in them did not follow Jesus. Do the phrases `Prince of Peace' , `forgive your enemies', `turn the other cheek' mean nothing to Christians? What a wonderful portrait of Jesus McDowell paints!

Notice that these towns were not ruined until much later. McDowell gives a date of 400 AD. Notice that these towns were not ruined until much later. McDowell gives a date of 400 AD. Assuming this is true, and I shall have more to say on this shortly, this means that God's judgment was visited not on the people who rejected Jesus's message but on their descendants centuries later. Is this the work of an omnibenevolent God?

McDowell quotes George Davis who says that Capernaum was destroyed around 400 AD and doubtless Chorazin and Bethsaida perished around the same time. Actually, there is considerable doubt. This gives no evidence at all that Chorazin and Bethsaida were destroyed at the same time. Indeed, the fate of Chorazin is not clear. Chorazin is only mentioned in the Bible and only mentioned in terms which do not pin down its location. There is a site near Galilee which probably was Chorazin but it is not totally certain.
So, I'm not sure what to believe. I'm not sure the passage in Matthew was even intended as a prophecy though. It sounds like, to me, a passage about the fate of these cities on judgement day, not that they'd necessarily be destroyed soon.
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