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01-25-2005, 04:56 PM | #21 | |
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Daniel 12:2 " Multitudes who sleep in the dust of the earth will awake. some to everlasting life, others to shame and everlasting contempt" So at the time that the book of Daniel was written some concept of an everlasting reward or punishment had materialized. Could people not be forgiven for taking this preexisting concept of everlasting shame and with all the talk of fire, combining the two into the concept of hell that is common to Christianity today. |
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01-25-2005, 05:01 PM | #22 |
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Sheol was a Jewish conception of an underworld, similar to Greek Hades, but with the noatable exception that it was not eternal. It was seen as sort of a holding tank for souls until judgement day when good people would receive eternal life and bad people would get eternal death (eventually envisioned as a casting into the flames of Gehenna).
So yes, there was a concept on afterlife in Judaism, just not eternal torture. |
01-25-2005, 05:24 PM | #23 | |
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If we use the word "Gay" today, it means homosexual. It is a snyonym. That would not be the case in earlier centuries. If you insist Shakespear meant homosexual when he wrote "whether grave or gay" then you'd be wrong. The questiuon is what Gehenna meant then. Nobody disagrees with you that after the concept of hell was developed an anachronistic translation supplanted the original Hebrew word. You simply cannot use a later rendering to change the original meaning. |
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01-25-2005, 05:30 PM | #24 | |
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I was always puzzled by these verses as they seemed to have skipped the resurrection and judgment day completely. They do seem to indicate an existence of agony. Would the first century reader have simply understood that the rich man would have had period of torture followed by annihilation? I don't mean to bug you, but this is something I have not resolved in my mind yet. |
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01-25-2005, 05:44 PM | #25 | |
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Personally, I don't this prable was authentic, though. |
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01-25-2005, 05:47 PM | #26 |
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gLuke is very Hellenistic and most likely 2nd century, so that passage does not disprove the general assertion.
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01-25-2005, 06:04 PM | #27 |
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If it wasn't for the Abraham reference I wouldn't give it any possibility of authentic origin at all.
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01-25-2005, 06:06 PM | #28 | |
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I think the whole Bible is a crock, but wouldn't the Christian have to accept and base his belief in the New Testament just as it was canonized in the forth century, or do you believe that verse was added after the New Testament was already canonized? |
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01-25-2005, 06:13 PM | #29 |
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A Christian would but I'm not a Christian. I'm not even saying that the character of Jesus as presented in the gospels can't be shown to be hypocritical if you take it all as accurate, I'm not really trying to argue that greater point. I'm just trying to argue that if there was an HJ, he couldn't have believed in or spoken of Christian hell. It's a historical point not a theological or philosphical or even literary one.
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01-25-2005, 06:17 PM | #30 | |
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gLuke was probably written in the second century, and Yuri will tell you that all of the gospels were continually revised until they were canonized. I take no position on what Christians have to believe. Some believe in the Bible, some in Church tradition and progressive revelation, some in their own spiritual revelation. Very few actually read the gospels that closely. |
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