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Old 09-12-2005, 03:54 PM   #71
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Default Jesus had no madate of his own. Why he called himself the "son of God."

Quote:
Originally Posted by Chili
. . . but angels are not Gods. They are God send and have no mandate of their own or on their own initiative...
I would restate what you said to, "Angels are not God." I agree. They are God-sent. For example:
“Then cried Jesus ... he {God} that sent me is true {i.e. the true God} ...� (John 7:28 KJV)
And, I agree with you that angels have no mandate of their own. Examples:
“What I {Jesus} speak, therefore, I speak just as the Father has told me.� (John 12:50 NRSV) “... the word that you hear is not mine, but is from the Father who sent me.� (John 14:24 NRSV) “Then Jesus answered them, ‘My teaching is not mine but his who sent me.’ � (John 7:16 NRSV)
I also agree with you that angels do not have their own initiative:
“I {Jesus} can do nothing on my own authority.� (John 5:30 RSV) “For I {Jesus} did not speak on My own initiative, but the Father Himself who sent Me has given Me a commandment as to what to say and what to speak.� (John 12:49 NASB) “The son {Jesus} can do nothing of himself, but what he sees the Father do. For the Father loves the Son, and shows him all things that himself does.� (John 5:19-20 KJV) Jesus said, “This commandment have I received of my Father.� (John 10:18 KJV)

Wouldn't you agree with me that Jesus, had no madate of his own?

Here is something else Jesus said. He quoted a verse from Psalms and then explained why he called himself the "Son of God":
“If those {the angels} to whom God spoke were called “gods�--and the scripture cannot be annulled-- can you say that the one {me} whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world is blaspheming because I said, ‘I am God's Son?’ � (John 10:33-36)
Jesus quoted the following verse: “I {God} said You are gods, and all of you are sons of the Most High {Heb. Elyon }.� (Psalms 82:6 NASB)
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Old 09-12-2005, 04:36 PM   #72
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Default Let us face the facts of the Bible and accept them.

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Originally Posted by yummyfur
First a very quick response before boring everyone with long qoutes.
You find the biblical verses boring?
Quote:
Originally Posted by yummyfur
To show the logic of your basic argument
spirit is a generic abstract term for anything non-physical or outside of regular nature.
A spirit is not 'anything' like "a thing." It is a being. So far I have been presenting to you evidence (verses from the Bible), and some explanations of what those verses mean or how they relate to each other. You have not addressed any of those verses. You chose to play the "ostritch to the facts" and "shoot from the hip" at me. I have agreed with you so many times, but you are firghtened to converse with me. You are afraid to face the facts of the Bible. The Bible says "Are not the angels spirits?" Why can't you accept this verse? How much plainer do you want the Bible to say this?
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Originally Posted by yummyfur
Angels are spirits Gods are spirits
therefore since spirits are sometimes called god, angels are god - False
to give a counter example Physical entities is a generic abstract term for anything with solid material form. Dogs are physical entities Men are Physical entities Therefore since physical entities are sometimes called men, dogs are men - False
Let us not take this conversation outside the realm of the Bible, into a theoretical argumentative world. Let us face the facts of the Bible and accept them.
take care,
Pilate
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Old 09-12-2005, 04:54 PM   #73
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
When angels are called gods .... they are called gods. Is this true or false? Now the qualities of the angels is another subject. Yes, their qualities are different for God. And the question of who is God, is another whole subject which I would be glad to discuss. One subject at a time. It makes things easier to handle.
No, they are not Gods but at best are they mainfestations of God since virtues are gifts of God. These come in different qualities but all are manifestations of God so we are not talking about the specifics of each quality.

The right to call them gods (small g) stems from our human condition wherein nothing is righteous in the eyes of God yet goodness flows from the heart of man wherein we are God.
Quote:

It does not matter what I call them. God called them gods: “I {God} said You are gods, and all of you are sons of the Most High {Heb. Elyon }.� (Psalms 82:6 NASB)
Now, wouldn't you agree that God in this verse called the angels "gods?" Aren't the angels called gods?
Let me know.
take care,
Pilate
When God calls them gods and sons of the Most High he is not talking about angels but about the destiny of the wicked who are both god and [still] human. They are human because they judge wrong even as sons of the Most High and therefore they will die (just as the children of Israel did). The message here is that it is not good enough to be son of god (son of man) but that we must become fully God.
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Old 09-12-2005, 05:03 PM   #74
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
. . .

Let us not take this conversation outside the realm of the Bible, into a theoretical argumentative world. Let us face the facts of the Bible and accept them.
take care,
Pilate
Are there facts in the Bible? Or just words?
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Old 09-12-2005, 05:35 PM   #75
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
.� (John 10:18 KJV)

Wouldn't you agree with me that Jesus, had no madate of his own?

Here is something else Jesus said. He quoted a verse from Psalms and then explained why he called himself the "Son of God":
“If those {the angels} to whom God spoke were called “gods�--and the scripture cannot be annulled-- can you say that the one {me} whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world is blaspheming because I said, ‘I am God's Son?’ � (John 10:33-36)
Jesus quoted the following verse: “I {God} said You are gods, and all of you are sons of the Most High {Heb. Elyon }.� (Psalms 82:6 NASB)
Yes he did have a mandate of his own. "It is finished" tells me so, but I can see why you hold that position. As I see it his mandate was to do the will of the father, freely, by sacrificing his life for the sins of his world and that is what the gods of Psalm 82 failed to do. The word "freely" is important here, I think, which is much easier said than done.

Exactly. Both were sons of God and both were sons of the Most High with the only difference that Jesus was one with the father and therefore knew the will of the father.
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Old 09-12-2005, 05:44 PM   #76
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
I went to the page of Liddel and Scott

If you were referring to the following as Adjective,

III. as Adj. in Comp. theôteros

The word 'theoteros' is not 'theos.' It is a comparison: "more godly"
But comparative of what? "[B]etter" comes from "good", "faster" from "fast", but Qewteros?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
I looked around the rest of that paragraph (III.) of adjectives, and clicked on the words 'theos.' I did not see an example or and explanation of how the word 'theos' can be an adjective. If you can give me an example that would help.
You were given examples in the entry.

What may be the case is that it is easy to turn the adjectival use into the attributes of a god in translation.


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Old 09-12-2005, 09:59 PM   #77
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Default Ahhhh ... those strange words!

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
But comparative of what? "[B]etter" comes from "good", "faster" from "fast", but Qewteros?
You were given examples in the entry.
What may be the case is that it is easy to turn the adjectival use into the attributes of a god in translation.

spin
To begin with, I never heard of such a word, :huh: (This word does not appear in the New Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon. It also does not exist in Hatch and Redpath -Concordance to the Septuagint. Also, this word has no connection with the Bible.) If you know what you are talking about show us the citations that support the use of this word. Bring them here and explain them, where everyone can see them and everyone can learn.
"Show and tell" please.
Pilate
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Old 09-12-2005, 10:09 PM   #78
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
To begin with, I never heard of such a word, :huh: (This word does not appear in the New Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon. It also does not exist in Hatch and Redpath -Concordance to the Septuagint. Also, this word has no connection with the Bible.) If you know what you are talking about bring the citations that support the use of this word.
Pilate
Liddell and Scott are the be all and end all. It's there to be read. Thayer is to hold the hand of those people who know nothing about Greek. A concordance of the LXX is restricted to the usages perceived in the LXX.

You simply didn't answer the question about what Qewteros was comparative of.


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Old 09-13-2005, 08:20 AM   #79
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
Paul made a parallelism [in Galatians 4:14]: he paralleled Jesus to an angel.
I think that your assumption of parallelism may not be correct.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
Now, you wrote in your the example, "King" and "ruler of the universe" are not the same thing, Yes, they are not the same thing. But the parallelism implies a similarity: a king rules his small kingdom, as the ruler of the universe rules the whole world. Now as you said, Paul may have been making a hyperbole. By 'hyperbole' you imply that Jesus is greater than the angels. I agree: “Having become as much better than the angels, as he {Jesus} has inherited a more excellent name than they.� (Hebrews 1:3 NASB)
Since Jesus is better than the angels, this suggests to me that Jesus is not an angel.
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Old 09-13-2005, 09:39 AM   #80
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Kesler
I think that your assumption of parallelism may not be correct.



Since Jesus is better than the angels, this suggests to me that Jesus is not an angel.
Jesus was an imposter and needed to be crucified and die lest the final one would be worse than the first (Mt.27:64c). The difference between these two would emerge in the absense of death.
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