Toto

We can pretty much rule that out.

Nope. The gospels were literary creations that relied heavily on the Hebrew Scriptures (you will find the word midrash used, although there is some dispute as to whether they are actually midrash - but the literary borrowing is evident, and makes sense.)

Yes, and historians typically wrote speaches for historical figures and had them say what they really should have said. Claiming oral tradition does not do much for the historical accuracy of the gospels.

ohmi

Much of the difference between the gospels seems explainable only because of usage of hearsay ['oral tradition'] that has just finally been recorded.

The difference between Matthew and John however is that in many places Matthew is relying on the old scriptures [and makes some mistakes], whereas John is showing their meaning from the spirit

John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

- This passage by John also begs the question as to why the gospels were written at all ,when Jesus promised all truth would come direct from God to the saints [those who ceased all unlovingness, all sin] :-John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth:

Toto

On the contrary, Matt and Luke repeat much of Mark verbatim, which is not typical of hearsay. It is an indication that the later two used Mark as a literary source. At least some of the differences can be explained as due to the differing theological stances of the authors.

sugarhitman

Jesus also said this "I have other sheep who are not of this fold." That is none Jewish sheep. The OT is filled with testimonies of the Messiah bringing light to the Gentiles. Paul makes it clear that the Gospel was to be preached to the Jew *first* this is what Jesus meant, His testimony was to be sent to the Jews first....not Only. Those who follow Jesus and have faith in God are of the House of Israel. I know many people do not like this but I will say it anyway....Jesus died and is searching for the lost sheep people in all nations, people who truly want to know who God is, those people who know that the Creator cannot be evil and whatever belief they are currently in they will come out when presented with the Truth.....but to the rest the Gospel is nothing but a Testimony against them. All the lost sheep in all ages will be saved....this is the Mission of Jesus to save all the children of faith even if they are lost He will guide them unto Truth and reveal to them who God truly is. Some would say this is false, God died for all men...yeah? if this is so then why is faith required for salvation? Jesus died for and was sent to the lost sheep.....the children of faith.

youngalexander

You might try Challenging the Verdict: A Cross-Examination of Lee Strobel's "The Case for Christ" by Earl Doherty

ohmi

Yes, but it's still just copying of hearsay... it's a theory about the similar passages perhaps, it doesn't explain the differences [which somewhat contradict it]

Again a possible theory, but some of the differences are due simply to the different traditions of the audiences being addressed [for instance the enigmatic Roman timekeeping system , completely different in every way than the Hebrew original ]

ohmi

The House of Israel is completely non-Jewish, always was , always will be ... and it was to them alone that Jesus was sent , why do you not believe him if you SAY you believe him? :-

Matthew 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the House of Israel.

I have never suggested that the testimonies were only fr the Jews, but the few who find the narrow way [Matt 7:14] are all of Israel [Rev 7:3-8] ,named by Jesus according to tribe of Israel, whereas the MANY who go by the broad way are saved too [Rev 7:9-10], but afterward , not at Jesus' return because they are still sinners, not saints... not sealed with spirit baptism.

The House of Israel are ALL descendants of Jacob and it is a nation which disappeared to all except God amongst the gentiles, where Jesus sent his disciples looking for them... one cannot join the House of Israel, one is born to it or not ,as the case may be.

Perhaps you are forgetting that faith in Love is given by God, not taken up of oneself [Ephesians 2:8 ] , and that God saves Israel first not because of themselves, but simply to fulfill His prophecy that they will be His priests in His kingdom and rule all nations [OF GENTILES!] when the gentile sinners are resurrected free of sin in the second resurrection :-

Romans 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.

So that the many gentiles of all nations who go by the broad way are also saved, but after destruction in the end of this earth -Rev 7:9-10

sugarhitman

This is confusing.

Jews are of the house of Israel. This is why Paul say the Gospel must be preached to the Jews first, and read his other writings he does not seperate the "house of Israel" from the Jews...the House of Israel are the Jews. If the Gospel must be preached to the Jews first then they are the ones to whom Jesus was first sent.....the lost sheep due to the fact that they have been scattered (from the Turth) by their religious leaders. This is not a reference to "lost tribes".


Paul was not sent to "lost tribes" as he himself says he was sent to the Gentiles that is non-Israelites. "For salvation is for the Jew first and the Greek."


Israel will be the Capital in the millinium ruling over the saved Gentiles, however their decendants will rebel against God. There is no ressurection for of any Gentiles whose names are not in the Lamb's book of life. The second ressurection is the final judgement after the 1000 year reign of Christ. The arrival of the New Jerusalem comes right after this judgement....and nothing impure will enter it....only the saints....certainly not any "ressurected gentile sinners" who traveled the "broad way of destruction."



This is heresy.

rizdek

Thanks, I will.

ohmi

You are indeed confused, the Jews are the House of Judah ... the House of Israel were never Jews ,and follow pagan gods, not Judaism.


But he does :-

Hebrews 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the House of Israel and with the House of Judah:

But Jesus says that he is sent only to the House of Israel

Paul is indeed the apostle to the gentiles, but the other apostles are sent to the House of Israel scattered AMONGST the gentiles

God's mercy endures 'for ever' , so it does not end at the 'great throne' judgment ... so that is not the final judgment [and scripture nowhere says it will be]

Only the few travel the narrow way, but many are saved [Rev 7:9-10] , thus those who go by the broad way can be saved in the new earth, Jesus says so ...

No, it is reproof... discussion of what scripture actually says ...

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: