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Old 08-17-2004, 09:21 PM   #401
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lpetrich
Which explains everything. (sarcasm) Quote:
Originally Posted by Ed
Because of the Fall.

lp: Which explains everything. (sarcasm) Can't you guys think of anything better?
No guys thought of it, it was just an unfortunate happening.

Quote:
lp: An omnipotent, omniscient being would be omni-responsible, by omission as well as by commission.
I have never denied that God IS ultimately responsible though only indirectly for evil. Allowing something bad to happen for a greater good, is totally unlike directly causing evil.

Quote:
Ed: Because dead people cannot communicate to living people.

lp: And you are sure of that for what reason?
It is called science.
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Old 08-18-2004, 01:49 AM   #402
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Originally Posted by Ed
Ed: Because dead people cannot communicate to living people.

lp: And you are sure of that for what reason?

It is called science.
That seemed to be a bit of a wierd thing to be arguing about, but this damn treads gotten so long its hard to track arguments. So I traced that argrument thread back a bit and got this :

Quote:

[ss: me summarising, i got lazy] lp: gods seems to be in hiding, ed: not from me. lp: prove it (asks for technical data of his computer), ed: he CAN give me that, but he wont as we're not allowed to test him, lp: sounds dodgy, skeptics need to test something to prove it.

[ss: what was actually said]
ed:Over the last 2000 years God has demonstrated His powers to thousands of skeptics, including C.S. Lewis, originally an atheist, and me, originally an agnostic. And many many others. Who knows He may even demonstrate them to you someday.

lp:...And let's let Ed speak for himself as to what qualifies as "God demonstrating his powers" to him.

Ed: I was initially impressed with his miracles of nature but he also has established an amazing chain of events not necessarily supernatural, that have demonstrated his powers to me. And I have experienced a supernatural relationship with Him.


lp:Whatever those "demonstrations" are. Parting a local river? Raining manna from heaven?

And what kind of a "relationship" is it? Anything like the relationship of Hillary Clinton to Eleanor Roosevelt?


Ed: That relationship is non-existent, at least it is impossible she has one with Eleanor.

lp: I wonder what makes Ed so sure of this.

ed:Because dead people cannot communicate to living people.


lp: And you are sure of that for what reason?

ed: It is called science.
So while it looks like you're makin a valid claim that science proves that Hillary didnt talk to dead people. You've got a bit of a double standard:

-On the one hand you are SURE that science disproves hillary's claim to communication with some dead chick (One might say a personal relationship with a dead chick). Which is perfectly ok, I also think that it's impossible

-But you deny that your "Personal Relationship" with god can also be disproved with scientific evidence (or testing if you want).

Science tells you that dead people dont talk to poor old Hillary, but science also tells you that you can have a realtionship with a guy who was dead, a ghost and a creator (who are 1 person)?

Both are personal relationship with seemingly non-existant entities, both (or none) should be judged as impossible through science. lp's request for proof of "god demonstrating his powers" still stands.

-ss

ps, Did Hillary REALLY claim that she talked to ghosts? She was elected into something right? Seems.... crazy. :huh:
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Old 08-18-2004, 06:44 AM   #403
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ed
I have never denied that God IS ultimately responsible though only indirectly for evil. Allowing something bad to happen for a greater good, is totally unlike directly causing evil.
I'm do not intend to get involved in this discussion, but I do want to make one passing observation- in the KJV Bible, Isaiah 45:7 states, "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things."

This sounds to me like god claimed direct responsibility for evil.
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Old 08-18-2004, 09:38 PM   #404
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Ed: What is the reason that child rape is wrong?

jtb: Because I have an innate moral sense that says so.

Ed: If it is just a feeling then what is difference between your feeling and someone who has a feeling that it is not wrong?

jtb: My innate moral sense says so.
But what if some other person's moral sense says it is not wrong? How is your moral sense superior to his? Both of your moral senses come from the same source, ie evolution, so none is any better than the other.


Quote:
Ed: Also, evolution made men stronger than women, does that mean that it is alright to force your wife or some other woman to have sex with you because you are stronger and because you CAN do it?

jtb: My innate moral sense says that this is wrong.

Evolution and social conditioning easily explains this. Men who make a habit of going around raping women will get themselves killed. We evolved as social animals, and being antisocial is NOT a good survival/reproduction strategy.
But what if they don't get caught and killed, then is it alright?
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Old 08-19-2004, 01:52 AM   #405
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Quote:
Ed: What is the reason that child rape is wrong?

jtb: Because I have an innate moral sense that says so.

Ed: If it is just a feeling then what is difference between your feeling and someone who has a feeling that it is not wrong?

jtb: My innate moral sense says so.

But what if some other person's moral sense says it is not wrong? How is your moral sense superior to his? Both of your moral senses come from the same source, ie evolution, so none is any better than the other.
Evolution explains WHY my "moral sense" is better than that of the person you're considering: it aids my own survival and that of my children.
Quote:
Evolution and social conditioning easily explains this. Men who make a habit of going around raping women will get themselves killed. We evolved as social animals, and being antisocial is NOT a good survival/reproduction strategy.

But what if they don't get caught and killed, then is it alright?
For such a genetic predisposition to be truly successful, millions of generations of rapists would have to avoid being caught all the time. The killing of a single rapist (if it happens before he successfully reproduces) will extinguish all his potential descendants, ending his line.

Of course, in YOUR system, child-rape is OK if the parent gets paid.
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Old 08-19-2004, 09:54 PM   #406
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
"Where did such an innate moral sense come from?"

Ed: God.

jtb: No, that thing just is, it isn't an ought.

Ed: No, because it comes from his objective moral character which is composed of oughts. While evolution and social conditioning are composed of things that just are.

jtb: What does "composed of oughts" mean? According to Christian theologians, God simply HAS a specific "moral character". This doesn't give us a reason to obey God, however.
It means it is composed of moral principles, ie things that ought to be done. While evolution is not.

Quote:
jtb: Why should we obey God?

Fear of punishment? Is that the ONLY reason that something is "bad"? Might makes right?

Ed: No, we should obey God out of love for Him and also because that is the way to live the most fulfilling life in this temporal universe.

jtb: And we should obey society's rules out of love for our fellow humans and also because that is the way to live the most fulfilling life in this temporal universe: the life that evolution shaped us for.
But the problem is WHAT society? Nazi society? Soviet society? American society? And what rational objective basis do you have for judging which society is better? Also what life did evolution shape us for?

Quote:
jtb: You're missing the point (as usual). If we DO have an "innate moral sense", then that is sufficient reason to behave morally. But, for psychopaths who lack this sense: what OTHER reason is there?

Other than fear of punishment (which secular society also enforces), you have provided none.

Why should a sociopath CARE that "God created us"? Why does this provide a reason for a sociopath to obey God? It doesn't!
No, most humans want to live accordiing to what they think is an objectively rational basis in reality irrespective of what society teaches. And only Christian theism provides that. As far as sociopaths, if it can be demontrated that there strong evidence for God then some of them may control their behavior in order not to go to hell.

Quote:
jtb: It's simple, Ed. I have provided TWO reasons to behave morally. Fear of punishment, and an "innate moral sense" which I have EXPLAINED the origin of.

YOU have not provided any ADDITIONAL reasons that I have not.

Ed: That is not exactly what we were talking about. I was referring to the ORIGIN of morality not reasons for being moral. And as shown above there are no oughts in evolution and social conditioning so you still have not explained the origin.

Yes, I HAVE explained the origin:

evolution and social conditioning.

You have STILL not provided any reason why evolution and social conditioning would be incapable of producing an "innate moral sense". And you're STILL wittering about "oughts" even though this is irrelevant to the ORIGIN of this moral sense.
You have yet to provide ANY oughts from evolution and social conditioning. Just because someone is conditioned to do something does not mean he OUGHT to do it.
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Old 08-20-2004, 01:31 AM   #407
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jtb: What does "composed of oughts" mean? According to Christian theologians, God simply HAS a specific "moral character". This doesn't give us a reason to obey God, however.

It means it is composed of moral principles, ie things that ought to be done. While evolution is not.
ANY list of laws or moral principles is a list of "things that ought to be done" or "things that ought not to be done". You have still not provided any new reason to actually do, or not do, these things.
Quote:
Ed: No, we should obey God out of love for Him and also because that is the way to live the most fulfilling life in this temporal universe.

jtb: And we should obey society's rules out of love for our fellow humans and also because that is the way to live the most fulfilling life in this temporal universe: the life that evolution shaped us for.

But the problem is WHAT society? Nazi society? Soviet society? American society? And what rational objective basis do you have for judging which society is better? Also what life did evolution shape us for?
Note that Christianity doesn't say whether we should live in a democracy, a monarchy, a totalitarian theocracy, a communist state, or whatever. Apparently, the most "Biblically correct" society is a slave-owning totalitarian theocratic monarchy.

Evolution shaped us, as social animals, to live in ANY society in which there are rules of acceptable behavior which allow us to "get along" with our fellow humans.
Quote:
Why should a sociopath CARE that "God created us"? Why does this provide a reason for a sociopath to obey God? It doesn't!

No, most humans want to live accordiing to what they think is an objectively rational basis in reality irrespective of what society teaches. And only Christian theism provides that.
Nonsense. Christian theism CLAIMS to provide that. So does virtually every OTHER religion.
Quote:
As far as sociopaths, if it can be demontrated that there strong evidence for God then some of them may control their behavior in order not to go to hell.
We have already covered "fear of punishment", in case you'd forgotten.

The ADDITIONAL reason that Christianity provides is... ?
Quote:
You have STILL not provided any reason why evolution and social conditioning would be incapable of producing an "innate moral sense". And you're STILL wittering about "oughts" even though this is irrelevant to the ORIGIN of this moral sense.

You have yet to provide ANY oughts from evolution and social conditioning. Just because someone is conditioned to do something does not mean he OUGHT to do it.
We OUGHT to act in a manner which ensures our own survival and the survival of the society in which we are a part: this involves not making enemies.
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Old 08-22-2004, 09:14 PM   #408
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lpetrich
Originally Posted by Ed
I didn't say it founded on the name of the theory, it was founded on the names of God used in the Pentatuech.

lp: That's only one part of the theory, and not the foundation of it.
I beg to differ.

Quote:
(the early Christians...)
Ed: By not going along with the ancient Roman institution of patrias potestas in the Roman empire they were able to get these freedoms.

lp: How had they not gone along with that? Did they allow women to instruct adult men?
No, but the romans did not let women have the right to turn down marriage proposals only her father could do so, but the Christians did allow it. That is one thing among others.

Quote:
lp: And where did Mr. G. explicitly state "Women are not allowed to instruct adult men"? And what would happen if women did?
I Timothy 2:12. They would be disobedient Christians.

Quote:
lp: Would that be anything like what a disaster it supposedly is for women to drive cars; according to Saudi religious leader Al Qarni, it would result in:
* Women's heads being uncovered
* The sexes freely mingling
* The destruction of the the family and of society

For more, see the thread Why Women Are Not Allowed to Drive in Saudi Arabia
It could have a negative effect on the family, but the rest of above is absurd.
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Old 08-22-2004, 11:47 PM   #409
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We must give a lot of thanx to Ed for revealing the source of his belief that women are not allowed to teach men:

1 Timothy 2:12

NIV: I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent.

NASB: But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet.

1 Corinthians 14:34

NIV: As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says.

NASB: The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says.

Titus 2:4-5

NIV: Then they can train the younger women to love their husbands and children, to be self-controlled and pure, to be busy at home, to be kind, and to be subject to their husbands, so that no one will malign the word of God.

NASB: ... so that they may encourage the young women to love their husbands, to love their children, to be sensible, pure, workers at home, kind, being subject to their own husbands, so that the word of God will not be dishonored.

Me:

Does that mean that Deborah (Judges 4-5) had no legitimate authority?

Which shows that the Bible is something other than a super-feminist book.
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Old 08-23-2004, 09:45 PM   #410
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Ed: Given that we know that in most cases God allows free will it is a rational assumption that Pharoah hardened his own heart in all cases unless otherwise stated.

jtb: It is pretty easy for a nonexistent being to "allow" free will (my pet dragon has allowed you to remain un-incinerated thus far: are you not grateful for that?).

Ed: No, when interpreting the bible you have to look at it from the perspective of the writer, who plainly believed that God exists.

jtb: The writer of Exodus plainly did NOT believe that "God allows free will". Exodus contains MANY attempts by God to deny free will to both the Hebrews and the Egyptians. You are failing to grasp the fact that the concept of the "omnimax God" lay centuries in the future: the God of Exodus sought to suppress free will to the best of his limited ability.
Fraid not, read Ex. 32:26, where Moses asks the people to decide whose side they are on. If God did not allow free will he would not have had Moses ask this question. And Deut. 28 has a multitude of if then statements, such statements are meaningless if we do not have free will.
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