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07-03-2007, 04:49 AM | #31 |
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07-03-2007, 04:51 AM | #32 | |
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In the age of near 50% basic rate taxation -- the same as paid by the helots of ancient Sparta -- the question would seem one that most of us have already answered. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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07-03-2007, 04:55 AM | #33 |
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Clouseau, you are trying to have it both ways, but that doesn’t work. Rather it serves as another example of the incapacity of believers to reason.
Your claim that slavery was not proscribed in the Bible because the only other option was killing the captives is absurd. The Bible was (according to believers), written by “God” as a guide of appropriate behaviour for his “chosen people”. Had “God” considered slavery “evil”, he would have informed his “chosen people” that slavery was incorrect, and furthermore, he would have proscribed the killings of captives, thus eliminating the “only other choice” that you subscribe to. To say that slavery could not be forbidden by “God” because the only other choice is the slaying of captives is to say that “God” could not forbid the slaying of captives, a notion which I don’t see how a believer can subscribe to. If you claim that it was a result of the culture of the time you are implying that for “God”, what is right or wrong is not based on eternal principles but accommodates to the culture of peoples. For a believer the Bible is supposed to be the perfect instrument by which “God” establishes a culture of righteousness. Thus “God’s” laws should not accommodate to the culture of the people, but the other way around. The example of slavery’s non condemnation in the Bible indicates that it is not God's law but rather the instrument by which a particular culture regulated its life and sustained a national agenda. |
07-03-2007, 05:17 AM | #34 | ||||
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07-03-2007, 05:21 AM | #35 | |||
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07-03-2007, 05:35 AM | #36 | |
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It is true even if it is not biblical. The Freeman is eternal because he is no longer enslaved to his temporal ego wherein he lived beside himself and knowingly would die. |
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07-03-2007, 05:36 AM | #37 | |
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The argument as a whole seems to be a strawman, and might perhaps be reduced to: 1. Society in the west in the early 21st century objects to slavery. 2. The bible reflects a society in which slavery was a normal part of life. 3. This proves that the bible cannot be divinely inspired. No doubt everyone can see the fallacies, petitio principi and non-sequiturs that litter each stage of this. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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07-03-2007, 05:37 AM | #38 | |
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Not that bit. |
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07-03-2007, 05:40 AM | #39 |
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07-03-2007, 06:07 AM | #40 | ||
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So do you think slavery is positive and something that should be allowed today? If not, when was it that it stopped being a moral good? Please answer me this. And if the Bible disallowed slavery, but allowed theft in certain situations, you'd be telling us how inherently ambiguous theft is morally, while upholding the standard of the bible for outlawing slavery. One can rationalize anything. It doesn't make it right. |
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