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Old 11-13-2005, 10:42 AM   #1
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Default Rev 11:18, "destroy the earth"

Does anyone have an idea of what was meant by the passage saying ..."and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth"?

I've read that there was Roman pollution, but what specifically do you think was in the mind of the author of this passage? Perhaps deforestation, soil erosion?

Or could it simply have meant something like "destroy them which corrupt the earth", as in some sort of spiritual corruption? I've read that the word translated as "destroy" can also mean corrupt, but the same word is used for "destroy" in both parts of the verse. Anyway, any information is appreciated. Thanks.
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Old 11-13-2005, 01:23 PM   #2
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Does anyone have an idea of what was meant by the passage saying ..."and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth"?

I've read that there was Roman pollution, but what specifically do you think was in the mind of the author of this passage? Perhaps deforestation, soil erosion?

Or could it simply have meant something like "destroy them which corrupt the earth", as in some sort of spiritual corruption? I've read that the word translated as "destroy" can also mean corrupt, but the same word is used for "destroy" in both parts of the verse. Anyway, any information is appreciated. Thanks.
The same word DIAPhThEIRW is used in both parts of the verse but it can mean either 'corrupt' or 'destroy'.

The meaning is probably somethng like 'destroy those who deprave and corrupt people.' with a play on the two senses of DIAPhThEIRW

Andrew Criddle
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Old 11-15-2005, 10:23 AM   #3
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Originally Posted by unknown4
Does anyone have an idea of what was meant by the passage saying ..."and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth"?

I've read that there was Roman pollution, but what specifically do you think was in the mind of the author of this passage? Perhaps deforestation, soil erosion?

Or could it simply have meant something like "destroy them which corrupt the earth", as in some sort of spiritual corruption? I've read that the word translated as "destroy" can also mean corrupt, but the same word is used for "destroy" in both parts of the verse. Anyway, any information is appreciated. Thanks.

Andrew Criddle
The same word DIAPhThEIRW is used in both parts of the verse but it can mean either 'corrupt' or 'destroy'.

The meaning is probably somethng like 'destroy those who deprave and corrupt people.' with a play on the two senses of DIAPhThEIRW
The verse reads--

18 And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth.

So, however, we take the word, "destroy," it must fit in both contexts (although it is possible that it could mean definition A in the first instance of its use and definition B in the second instance as Andrew suggests).

The verse speaks of God "destroying" those who "destroy the earth. Those who destroy the earth are contrasted with the servants and prophets of God in the first part of the verse. Thus, they would be those who are not servants of God. It also appears that God's rewarding of His servants is contrasted with His destroying those who are not His servants.

The first "destroy" seems to be straightforward. God will destroy (or consign to hell) those who are not His servants. This might be taken to mean that God will consign to complete corruption those who are not His servants.

The issue is the meaning of the phrase, "...them which destroy the earth." Does it apply to the physical corruption of the earth through pollution etc? Probably not, since the Bible does not seeem to be concerned with such things elsewhere. I would go with that corruption tied to encouraging others not to serve God. That corruption could lead to abuse of the physical earth (pollution etc.) but would focus on the corruption of individuals as the first intent of those who destroy the earth. Destruction of the physical earth may be a secondary result not necessarily intended.

That's a quick and dirty analysis that could be expanded with more time.
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Old 11-15-2005, 10:27 AM   #4
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The issue is the meaning of the phrase, "...them which destroy the earth." Does it apply to the physical corruption of the earth through pollution etc? Probably not, since the Bible does not seeem to be concerned with such things elsewhere. I would go with that corruption tied to encouraging others not to serve God. That corruption could lead to abuse of the physical earth (pollution etc.) but would focus on the corruption of individuals as the first intent of those who destroy the earth. Destruction of the physical earth may be a secondary result not necessarily intended.

That's a quick and dirty analysis that could be expanded with more time.
Or it could, of course, be meaningless gibberish.
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Old 11-16-2005, 03:49 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rhutchin

The issue is the meaning of the phrase, "...them which destroy the earth." Does it apply to the physical corruption of the earth through pollution etc? Probably not, since the Bible does not seeem to be concerned with such things elsewhere. I would go with that corruption tied to encouraging others not to serve God. That corruption could lead to abuse of the physical earth (pollution etc.) but would focus on the corruption of individuals as the first intent of those who destroy the earth. Destruction of the physical earth may be a secondary result not necessarily intended.

That's a quick and dirty analysis that could be expanded with more time.
Or it could, of course, be meaningless gibberish.
Everything everyone says can be meaningless gibberish (and usually is). The challenge is to discern that which is not.
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Old 11-16-2005, 08:22 AM   #6
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Everything everyone says can be meaningless gibberish (and usually is). The challenge is to discern that which is not.
Good point.

Do you have some rule of thumb for distinguishing the meaningless gibberish in the bible from what may conceivably be of value?
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Old 11-16-2005, 09:18 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rhutchin
Everything everyone says can be meaningless gibberish (and usually is). The challenge is to discern that which is not.
Good point.

Do you have some rule of thumb for distinguishing the meaningless gibberish in the bible from what may conceivably be of value?

Yes. The rule of thumb is this: Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable..." (2 Timothy 3:16)
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Old 11-16-2005, 09:20 AM   #8
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
Everything everyone says can be meaningless gibberish (and usually is). The challenge is to discern that which is not.
Good point.

Do you have some rule of thumb for distinguishing the meaningless gibberish in the bible from what may conceivably be of value?

Yes. The rule of thumb is this: Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable..." (2 Timothy 3:16)
:rolling: Wonderful. Thank you for a good laugh there!

*wipes eyes*

But seriously, are you aware of the inadequacies of circular logic?
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Old 11-16-2005, 09:24 AM   #9
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:rolling:

rhutchin, thank you. That was classic.
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Old 11-16-2005, 11:49 AM   #10
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Yes. The rule of thumb is this: Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable..." (2 Timothy 3:16)
Unlike some of these others who merely make mock of you, I will attempt to explain to you why they consider your answer to be amusing.

You say that, "Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish."

To prove that point, you quote the bible which says sustantially that nothing in the bible is meaningless or gibberish.

Sit back and think about this for a moment.

////////

Now that you've had a chance to think about it, let me see if I can explain more fully what you did that was so amusing to the heartless.

You can't prove that a given statement is true by simply quoting that statement which asserts that it is true.

If you still don't see what went wrong, I'll try to explain more fully.
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