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Old 04-12-2012, 08:31 AM   #31
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Just to clarify, according to Maimonides and other commentators, the plank or beam was inserted into the ground and it had an extension or hook. The dead person was tied by his hands (not the neck) to the hook or extension with his hands together for a very brief period near sunset and then removed and buried. The beam and hook, and the stone used in his execution were buried nearby.

This is what would have been the punishment for Yeshu ben Pandera under the authority of the Sanhedrin before the Romans removed the authority of the Sanhedrin in capital punishment cases under Gabinus around 55 BCE.
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Old 04-13-2012, 02:00 PM   #32
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The person was not impaled. After his death he would be hanged until nightfall on a tree.
But again, you're quoting talmudic, that is, rabbinical sources written after the fall of the temple. Sometimes, considerably later.

Look up the Jewish Publication Society's 1985 English version of the Tanakh, Devoyim (Deuteronomy) 21:22-23. It clearly states, impale upon a stake.

Also David W Chapman's Ancient Jewish and Christian Perspectives of Crucifixion. Here, I'll give you a preview. It even covers תלה ("talah").
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Old 04-13-2012, 02:15 PM   #33
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The Hebrew in those verses are all from the root TALA meaning "HANG." He was hanged on a scaffold. Interestingly enough the word used in the targums for the verb and noun for scaffolding with the root tsade-lamed-bet is used in modern Hebrew to refer to crucifixion/crucify. In any case, the sinner is killed by stoning and then hanged on the scaffold.
In Jastrow's Dictionary that very same root tsade-lamed-beta (tzlb) and its cognate tsade-lamed-beta-aleph (tzlba) means "hang, impale" and "gallows, stake" and other sources also include "crucify, cross" for the respective words. The targumin frequently substitute tzlb 'al tzlba (stake upon a stake, crucify on a cross, hang upon a gallows) for tlah 'al 'etz (hang upon a tree (old rabbinical), impale upon a stake (1985 JPS)).
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Old 04-13-2012, 03:31 PM   #34
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Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
The Hebrew in those verses are all from the root TALA meaning "HANG." He was hanged on a scaffold. Interestingly enough the word used in the targums for the verb and noun for scaffolding with the root tsade-lamed-bet is used in modern Hebrew to refer to crucifixion/crucify. In any case, the sinner is killed by stoning and then hanged on the scaffold.
In Jastrow's Dictionary that very same root tsade-lamed-beta (tzlb) and its cognate tsade-lamed-beta-aleph (tzlba) means "hang, impale" and "gallows, stake" and other sources also include "crucify, cross" for the respective words. The targumin frequently substitute tzlb 'al tzlba (stake upon a stake, crucify on a cross, hang upon a gallows) for tlah 'al 'etz (hang upon a tree (old rabbinical), impale upon a stake (1985 JPS)).
Thanks for this.

I was unable to find any articles dealing with this issue, that is, explaining what made the 1985 team change this.

They made this change to

Quote:
but the chief baker he impaled -- just as Joseph had interpreted to them.
(Gen 40:22 TNK)
Quote:
And as he interpreted for us, so it came to pass: I was restored to my post, and the other was impaled." (Gen 41:13 TNK)
Quote:
And the king of Ai was impaled on a stake until the evening. At sunset, Joshua had the corpse taken down from the stake and it was left lying at the entrance to the city gate. They raised a great heap of stones over it, which is there to this day. (Jos 8:29 TNK)
I'm not aware of any reason to think this wasn't a "normal" death penalty at some point, other than the Talmudic opinion, which states it wasn't used to kill someone.

The Code of Hammurabi (Harper translation)

Quote:
153. If a woman bring about the death of her husband for the sake of another man, they shall impale her.
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Old 04-13-2012, 08:12 PM   #35
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In Jastrow's Dictionary that very same root tsade-lamed-beta (tzlb) and its cognate tsade-lamed-beta-aleph (tzlba) means "hang, impale" and "gallows, stake" and other sources also include "crucify, cross" for the respective words. The targumin frequently substitute tzlb 'al tzlba (stake upon a stake, crucify on a cross, hang upon a gallows) for tlah 'al 'etz (hang upon a tree (old rabbinical), impale upon a stake (1985 JPS)).
Thanks for this.

I was unable to find any articles dealing with this issue, that is, explaining what made the 1985 team change this.

They made this change to







I'm not aware of any reason to think this wasn't a "normal" death penalty at some point, other than the Talmudic opinion, which states it wasn't used to kill someone.

The Code of Hammurabi (Harper translation)

Quote:
153. If a woman bring about the death of her husband for the sake of another man, they shall impale her.
Semiopen, I think they made the change because of epigraphy that archaeologists dug up in Egypt and Assyria (Syria - Iraq), which served as "bookends" to the First Temple Period. Here's an article about this: Impalements in Antiquity (2)
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Old 04-14-2012, 06:49 PM   #36
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There are many other translations besides the JPS, and in any even I refer back to the original use of the Hebrew and its related Aramaic targums and of course the traditional Jewish commentaries. I fail to see why JPS uses the expresses impale on a stake if they do not rely on traditional Jewish commentaries and the use of the Hebrew word ETZ which means wood or tree.
On the other hand, I suppose the Pauline epistle got the idea of hanging on a "pole" from the Greek.

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Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
The person was not impaled. After his death he would be hanged until nightfall on a tree.
But again, you're quoting talmudic, that is, rabbinical sources written after the fall of the temple. Sometimes, considerably later.

Look up the Jewish Publication Society's 1985 English version of the Tanakh, Devoyim (Deuteronomy) 21:22-23. It clearly states, impale upon a stake.

Also David W Chapman's Ancient Jewish and Christian Perspectives of Crucifixion. Here, I'll give you a preview. It even covers תלה ("talah").
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Old 04-14-2012, 09:56 PM   #37
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Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
There are many other translations besides the JPS, and in any even I refer back to the original use of the Hebrew and its related Aramaic targums and of course the traditional Jewish commentaries. I fail to see why JPS uses the expresses impale on a stake if they do not rely on traditional Jewish commentaries and the use of the Hebrew word ETZ which means wood or tree.
On the other hand, I suppose the Pauline epistle got the idea of hanging on a "pole" from the Greek.

Quote:
Originally Posted by la70119 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
The person was not impaled. After his death he would be hanged until nightfall on a tree.
But again, you're quoting talmudic, that is, rabbinical sources written after the fall of the temple. Sometimes, considerably later.

Look up the Jewish Publication Society's 1985 English version of the Tanakh, Devoyim (Deuteronomy) 21:22-23. It clearly states, impale upon a stake.

Also David W Chapman's Ancient Jewish and Christian Perspectives of Crucifixion. Here, I'll give you a preview. It even covers תלה ("talah").
Well, עֵץ ('etz) does mean anything wooden. Strong's concordance claims it is derived from עָצָה ('atzah = wink, to shut).
Then there is צלב (tzlb) which eventually displaced תלה (talah). צלב according to some of the Targumin and earliest rabbinical writings, meant to hang or impale, likely "in the manner which the [Roman] government does it" due to the same word "tzlb" in the Christian Palestinian Aramaic, Mandaic and Syriac meaning "crucify," even in the Arabic, where it could have a somewhat broader interpretation. Sifre Deut. 221 actually indicates a live hanging in the [Roman] government manner for the verb תלה (talah). (See Chapman pp. 14-26 in the PDF I linked above.)

But you are right about Paul using σταυρος (pole) and σταυροω (poleify - piledrive - impale - crucify [the last apparently only after 70 CE according to Gunnar Samuelsson]).
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Old 04-15-2012, 09:23 AM   #38
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The other unambiguous word used for a growing tree is "ilan ".
In any case, the JPS translator would have to demonstrate WHY the use of the term TALA in this case as "impale" is not used elsewhere in the Tanakh. It makes absolutely no sense to read into a straightforward word something that is not there.
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Old 04-15-2012, 10:32 AM   #39
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I guess one thing to do would be to ask the translators or perhaps to read the detailed JPS Commentaries.

English-Language Torah Translations

Quote:
The five volume JPS Torah Commentary has extensive notes and discussions from four world-class scholars who are more traditional than Plaut: Nahum Sarna, Baruch Levine, Jacob Milgrom and Jeffrey Tigay, but the entire set costs over $200.00.
These are not radical guys.

Leviticus as Literature
MARY DOUGLAS

Only mentions impalement briefly -

Quote:
it is worth noting Milgrom's comment that impaling the wrongdoers is a closer translation than hanging, and his interesting notes on the various forms of execution by impaling. 20 If the word 21 has the same sense as impale does in English what Phinehas then did was a form of impaling.
Here is Jim Stineheart in another forum

Quote:
As previously noted, JPS1985 translates TLH as "impale" at Genesis 40:
19. Here is what Professor Robert Alter says about TLH/"impale" at p. 232
of his translation of, and commentary on, Genesis:"impale". Despite that fact that the Hebrew verb generally means "to hang", hanging was not a common means of execution anywhere in the ancient Near East, and there is evidence elsewhere that the same verb was used for impalement, which was frequently practiced. The baker's dire fate would seem to be first decapitation and then exposure of the body on a high stake. Another source states: "The Egyptians executed people by impaling a pointed stake [or tp-ht in hieroglyphs] through the victim."
Quote:
The Assyrians loved to impale people, and left voluminous pictures of
enemies being impaled.
I know Jim slightly and he is a character. I'm not sure I'd agree with much of what he says about anything except on this topic, which is, after all, pretty much mainstream. His reference to Robert Alter demonstrates that the impale translation has wdespread academic support.
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Old 04-15-2012, 08:37 PM   #40
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The reason that the "hanged on a tree" reference is made by Paul and others is because Hebrew Scripture has no reference to crucifixion, so the "hung on a tree" thing is as close as they could find in the Old Testament to an image of crucifixion.
I would say you've got it the wrong way around. They weren't looking in scripture for a crucifixion (your assumption being that they were prompted to do so by an historical crucifixion). Rather, the earliest cultic Christians imagined that they had discovered a sacrificed divine Messiah in scripture, one who was cursed in order to redeem, and the motif of 'hanging on a tree' which was a prominent element in that scripture was seen as fitting and adopted by some as the (revealed) method of execution. (We find the image of hanging on a tree in, for example, 1 Peter and the Ascension of Isaiah.) Others may have interpreted different elements of scripture (phrases in Isaiah 53 and Zechariah 12, for example) as indicating that this heavenly redeemer underwent crucifixion, and thus Paul used the image of a cross, as did the epistle to the Hebrews.

Early Christian terminology was fluid because it was all based on scripture, not on an historical event on earth. No sectarian movement is monolithic in its thinking and expression, especially in the initial stages.

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