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10-17-2011, 05:39 AM | #1 | ||
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Paul's reference to a forged and "Christianized" Hystaspes (Clement Strom 6)
Clement states that "Paul" quotes from a version of oracles of Hystaspes which alludes to Christ. One explanation provided is that Clement is quoting Paul from a non canonical source. If this is the case, has anyone got any idea whether such a non canonical source exists?
Another explanation is that there is no source to this Clementine fabrication, and the author of "Clement" simply has "Paul" declare a Christianized message from Hystaspes. In reference to the Christianization of the oracles of Hystaspes, Arnaldo Momigliano points out that "These oracles predicted the destruction of the Roman Empire and the return to the power of the east.". He goes on to say .... Quote:
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10-17-2011, 05:09 PM | #2 | |
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On Pagans, Jews, and Christians (or via: amazon.co.uk) may be previewed on Google Books.es |
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10-17-2011, 06:15 PM | #3 |
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And Celsus made reference to 'Sibyllists' (i.e. Christians who used the pagan oracles) and the idea is also present in Catholic writers (Tertullian, ad Nationes, ii. 12). As with everything Pete brings forward it only has shock value for the ignorant. There are Christian today that practice yoga and eastern meditation practices. All that Pete's research is good for is to remind us that faith is never monochromatic or monolithic.
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10-19-2011, 12:19 AM | #4 | ||||||
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not possible.... So, then, what is Mountain-man's research good for? Well, it is not good for treating the extant "patristic" literature as if it were the "gospel truth". Your pejorative post is unbecoming, stephan. Quote:
My question is who came first, Paul, then Clement, or vice versa, or both concurrently? How confident can we be that Paul and Clement are different people, especially that Clement of Rome, to add a little salt to the meat, also cited Paul, supposedly. Can all three have been fabrications, from the point of view of the extant manuscript evidence? If one examines writings attributed to Justin Martyr, as a patristic source, perhaps earliest, or maybe not, I don't know, can one write with confidence, that the extant manuscript evidence of his output is attested to, in multiple instances, (not just a couple of manuscripts one copied from another,) both copies dating from before the fourth century? I doubt it. It is not "faith" whose monochromaticity benefits from acknowledgement, but rather, investigation, questioning, research, i.e. the contrary of "faith". Thank you Mountain-man. |
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