Theophage

Howdy all,

The title of this thread is essentially my question: Was the word "christos" used in greek writings before the time of Jesus? I'm assuming it was, but I'd like to see the contexts on how it was used.

Thanks in advance,

Daniel "Theophage" Clark

CJD

Christos, as you know, etymologically shares the sames meaning as the Hebrew meshiach. It was a title, not a personal name. Nonetheless, it is surprising how quick it came to be a name of one specific person. This is also surprising that Jesus was ever called Christos at all, since the Jewish messianic expectations of the first century were hardly embodied by the Jesus of the Gospels.

But your question was about the use of Christos (or "the anointed one") in Greek writings before the time of Jesus. This is not something I know much about. Maybe you were looking for uses outside of Judaism? Before we go there, let's look at a non-canonical intertestamental piece of literature (there are many references about a future Davidic king in the OT, but that is outside the scope of this thread): The Psalms of Solomon, 17:36 [32b] (c. 100–65 BC):

And there shall be no unrighteousness in his days in their midst,
___________ For all shall be holy and their king the anointed of the Lord.

The Greek here, as expected, is christo. This prayer speaks of the coming of the Kingdom that will brought in by "the Lord's anointed," the son of David, the King. The portrayal is clearly political and earthly. One could continue giving such examples of the Jewish messianic expectations of the Royal Davidic Messiah, but this one sums it up nicely. "Christ" in the first century was not associated with a divine being; it was associated with the coming king. Thus Saint Paul's usage of Jesus Christ might be more appropriately translated "King Jesus."

Anyhow, was this title used in circles outside Judaism? I don't think it was, not as a title. It was, however, as a verb ("to be rubbed on, used as ointment or salve, etc.). Consider the following from Aeschylus' Prometheus Bound:

ou christon, oude piston, alla pharmakôn (l. 480).

Also note line 516 of Euripides' Hippolytus where Phaidra ponders:

potera de christon ê poton to pharmakon; (Trophos replies, "I don't know").

Many such uses are found in classical Greek texts (even in the LXX and the NT), but to my knowledge, not as a title outside of Judaism. I, of course, would happily stand corrected.

Regards,

CJD

Theophage

Thanks CJD, your info was excellent.

I knew "Christos" wasn't necessarily a name (though it has the s at the end which is, IIRC, the right format for a name in the Greek), but I was hoping that somewhere else in the Greek literature someone was known as "the annointed one". I had assumed that annointing was not just a Hebrew custom/idiom for kings and such.

But "messiach" was used before Jesus in Hebrew writings was it not? I mean, David, Saul, Solomon and all the other kings were "messiahs" were they not? This relates to my original question because I'm wondering how unique those titles are to Jesus.

Daniel "Theophage" Clark

CX

Not unique. All Jewish kings were anointed as part of their enthronement. Israel was a theocratic kingdom so the king was not only a political leader, but a religious leader.

Theophage

That's exactly what I thought, CX, thanks

spin

The most important anointing is that of the high priest (and of course the Hasmoneans were high priests as well). When Daniel 9:26 talks of an anointed one being cut off this is a high priest (Onias III), despite later xian interpretation. Zechariah 4:14 interestingly talks of the two anointed ones ("sons of oil"), these are the high priest and the royal figure (who is later dropped from Zechariah's consideration).

Beside the Hasmonean kings, it would be hard to argue that Jewish kings were anointed both as political and religious leaders. There are doubts to the historical "veracity" of the "historical" literature.

Incidentally, does anyone have a dating for when "messiah" was used in Jewish literature for the "messianic" coming (military) leader? (Interestingly, Cyrus the Persian is also God's messiah. Isa 45:1. Obviously for this Isaian writer a messiah was a military leader/king, though a past one.)


spin

CX

Your point is well taken. I think in my brevity I overstated the case. I did not mean that the Jewish King was the leader of the Temple Cult. Rather, simply, that he was intimately involved, or expected to be involved, in the religious life and practice of the kingdom.