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08-14-2009, 08:36 AM | #521 | |||
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Perhaps Jesus himself, as the symbolic representation of the suffering of the innocent Jewish people at the hands of the Romans and their corrupt leadership, is a story telling convention. Robert M. Price read the gospels, and by removing the literary, theological, and story telling conventions, was left only with the Incredible Shrinking Son of Man, with no way of finding a historical core at the center of the story. |
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08-14-2009, 08:38 AM | #522 | ||
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does it bother you that all your objections to christianity (regardless of whether they are true or false) also apply to Judaism? |
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08-14-2009, 08:42 AM | #523 | ||
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08-14-2009, 09:56 AM | #524 | |
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08-14-2009, 11:49 AM | #525 | |||
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Or if you think me a tin foil hat wearer simply because I reject as abject bullshit the idea that both John the Apostle and Polycarp both lived to extremely old age and that John and other apostles put Polycarp in charge of the church when he was a boy, you're welcome to do so. Or perhaps you think it unreasonable to seriously doubt the authenticity of a letter *first* attributed to Polycarp during the heyday of Christian pseudepigrapha, or to doubt the authenticity of letters attributed to other early church fathers in light of the fact that most such letters have been conclusively determined to be frauds, there is a strong motive for generating them, but the others have not yet been proven as such. Afterall, I'm dismissing those who argue for early dating as apologetic wingnuts uninterested in serious analysis. So I suppose it's fair. Quote:
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In any case, we don't know which part of the empire any given NT text originated in. |
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08-14-2009, 12:45 PM | #526 | |
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Here are 2 peices of information that make your sugestion IMplausible. One, p52 is dated from a range of 125-150 typically. this is the date of this copy, not the original. This copy is in Egypt. that means the book of John is before this copy, right? it is impossible that the orginal was not before this. it is plausible that it was years before since it is in Egypt and it is unlikely to have been written in Egypt. This is the book that was written last. It is technically possible that they were written one day after another and shipped to a dump in Egypt straightaway but it is NOT plausible. This one piece of information makes early 2nd century plausible and later 1st century equally plausible. It makes mid 2nd century unlikely and late 2nd century impossible. the fact that ireneaus is at the same quoting the book (not writing it but quoting it) in a defense of orthodoxy against those who are presumably able to verify his quotes from the other side of the known world is a separate piece of evidence that also pushes down into the early 2nd century. it precludes the late 2nd century but does not impact the possibility of the late 1st century. for these 2 reasons alone, any relationship to the BK revolts is unlikely regardless of how many would-be authors writing as Paul in the late 2nd century. |
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08-14-2009, 01:45 PM | #527 | |
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08-14-2009, 03:29 PM | #528 |
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P52 is dated to a much larger range - 100 to 200 CE. Christian apologists try to date it much earlier, but there is no necessity for that.
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08-14-2009, 05:21 PM | #529 | ||
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That, of course, doesn't mean that we should believe that they were 'restoring' the text, but I don't see how to exclude the possibility that that's what they sincerely believed they were doing. |
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08-14-2009, 06:37 PM | #530 | |
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Its also shocking to compare the evidence for Moses with the Gospels - the former marks the most proven writings and the latter the reverse. My point is - you cannot accuse someone of such crimes based only on belief, and not care whether its true or false. A falsehood and the Holy one cannot abide together. :wave: |
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