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09-26-2010, 05:53 AM | #101 | |
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:deadhorse:
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09-26-2010, 05:55 AM | #102 | |||
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:hobbyhorse:
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09-26-2010, 08:46 AM | #103 |
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Our next smilie: beating a dead hobby horse.
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09-26-2010, 11:49 AM | #104 | |||
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Jay,
The final post on the raw data. Riley points out that: Quote:
Greek AH 1, 2, 2. (Epiphanius) PROHLATO DE POLU hO TELEUTAIOS KAI NEWTATOS THS DWDEKADOS, THS hUPO TOU ANQRWPOU KAI THS EKKLHSIAS, PROBEBLHMENOS AIWN, TOUTESTIN hH SWFIA, KAI EPAQE PAQOS ANEU THS EPIPLOKHS TOU ZUGOU TOU QELHTOU; hO ENHRXATO MEN EV TOIS PERI TON NOUN KAI THN ALHQEIAN, APESKHYE [by infection] DE [but] EIS [into] TOUTON [this] TON [the (one) = the Aeon] PARATRAPENTA [diverted]Riley argues that "the latter passages [IL & Tertullian Ad.Val.] both add Sophia's name in the Latin because of the difference in genders: after "in hunc" one would not expect a feminine noun unless expressed. Note T's comment, "viderit soloecismus" (Adv. Val. 9)." [ A solescism is "something deviating from the proper, normal, or accepted order" per Merriam Webster Dictionary] My comments are as follows: That "solecism" that Tertullian calls attention to in the first mention of the name Sophia seems to exist to call attention to the inconsistency of the Aeon Sophia, meaning Wisdom, falling into error. The second instance in these passages seems intended to identify "this (Aeon)" in the Greek AH as Sophia, to distinguish it from the other Aeons mentioned: Anthropos, Ekklesia, Theletus, Nous and Aletheia.Lipsius noted that: Quote:
Greek AH 1, 2, 4. (Epiphanius) DIA DE TOU hOROU TOUTOU FASI KEKAQARQAI KAI ESTHRICQAI THN SOFIAN, KAI APOKATASTAQHNAI TH SUZUGIA; XWRISQEISHS GAR THS ENQUMHSEWS AP' AUTHS SUN TW EPIGINOMENW [overcoming/impending] PAQEI [passion], AUTHN MEN ENTOS PLHRWMATOS EINAI [or MEINAI per IL]; THN DE ENQUMHSIN AUTHS SUN TW PAQEI hUPO TOU hOROU AFORISQHNAI KAI APOSTERHQHNAI ["was deprived", or APOSTAURWQHNAI "to fence off" per IL & Tert], KAI EKTOS AUTOU GENOMENHNIn response to this, Riley argues that "the … word, 'appendicem,' is a technical medical term which exactly fits here" and thus the agreement could be an independent use of a technical term that fits the context. My comments: How does he know this is a technical term, and if so, for what? Lewis & Short does not show any technical meanings for the latin word "Appendix." My guess is that Latin Appendix "fits" because in Greek 1.2.2. Irenaeus uses the bona-fide Greek medical technical term APESKHYE (apeskEpse) which refers to the way illness moves from one part of the body to another, which we would call infection. However, see my comment on that passage above in which both the Latin translator and Tertullian completely ignore this sense of the word (Latin translator mistakes it for an attribute of Sophia -demutatem, Tertullian ignores this term completely)Riley also argues that the latter "expression [i.e., crucified] comes from Paul, 'to have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires,' Gal. 5:24." [qui autem sunt Christi carnem crucifixerunt cum vitiis et concupiscentiis, And those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires.] My comments: That is not an explanation for why the Latin translator and Tertullian would both independently mistranslate the Greek word for "fence out" as "crucifixion." It is more like an excuse. This matter, in fact, is the strongest evidence we have for assuming that Tertullian must have used the Latin translation of AH, and did not independently translate from a copy of Greek AH. Tertullian, working from the original Greek, would be very unlikely to have made this translation. If he had read "crucifixam" in a copy of Latin AH, and did not have a copy of Greek AH, then he might well assume that Irenaeus did in fact say such a thing.Lipsius says: Quote:
Greek AH 1.11.3 (Hippolytus) ALLOS DE TIS EPIFANHE DIDASKALOS AUTWN … HOUTOS LEGEI … [But another, a certain Epiphanes, a teacher of them … this one says …]Wrapping up, I would appreciate it if our resident Greek and Latin experts could offer their illuminations. This means you, Mr Criddle and Mr Pearse, as well as any one else who can add their commentary to the language and style issues. I corresponded with Ben Smith, but he had to "politely decline" an invitation to discuss this on account of some personal challenges he is facing at this time. Although I put a couple days effort into this series of posts, I am in no way an expert in Greek or especially Latin, and I am happy to admit I can have made mistakes in spelling or interpretation caused by unfamiliarity with Latin. My Greek transliteration uses C for Chi (which looks like an X in Greek) and X for Xi (ksee, which looks like the letter E without the vertical stroke), and Y for Psi (which looks like a saguaro cactus with two "arms"). DCH |
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09-26-2010, 12:42 PM | #105 | |
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But, that is the summary of your own posts.
Examine an excerpt from your own post. Quote:
Please don't beat yourself to death. It is not worth it. Irenaeus was a FAKE bishop and an incompetent liar and HERETIC. It is CLEAR that Irenaeus did NOT know what was Heresy in the 2nd century. In the 2nd century it was HERETICAL and FALSE to claim in any language, LATIN or GREEK, that it was preached and teached in the Church that: 1. Jesus was crucified at about the age of 50 years. 2. The Gospels show that Jesus was crucified at around 50 years of age. 3. A supposed apostle John preached and teached in Ephesus that Jesus was about 50 years old when he was crucified. 4. There were people who heard the supposed apostle John preach and teach in Ephesus that Jesus was about 50 years old when he suffered. 5. Jesus was born in 41st year of Augustus. 6. Jesus was crucified under the Emperor CLAUDIUS. It is all over. The fraud of the history of the Church has been EXPOSED. This is a partial list of some of the writers or writings under the names of these writers, in Greek, or Latin, that have been DELIBERATELY "historize" using non-historical events for "Church History": 1. Ignatius 2. Clement of Rome. 3. Papias 4. Polycarp. 5. IRENAEUS 6. Tertullian. 7. Clement of Alexandria. 8. Origen 9. Acts of the Apostles 10. The Pauline writings. 11. Eusebius. |
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09-26-2010, 01:11 PM | #106 | |
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As one whose inexpertise is legendary, allow me, nevertheless, to ask this question, again: How can you claim to be quoting from "Irenaeus", while using quote, after quote, after quote, from Hippolytus' Greek texts, or rather, copies therefrom, dating from the 14th century? avi |
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09-26-2010, 06:17 PM | #107 | |
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09-26-2010, 06:54 PM | #108 | ||
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Because it is easier than saying "Greek Irenaeus Bk.ch.vs as preserved by Epiphanius, bishop of Salamis, in his Medicine Chest against All Heresies bk.ch.vs, according to the editio princeps of Basle, 1544, edited by Johannes Oporinus, as preserved in Sancti Irenaei Episcopi Lugdunensis Libros quinque adversus haereses, edited by W Wigan Harvey STB, Cantabrigiae: Typis Academics, 1857" every time I cite the Greek. Epiphanius cited almost the entirety of book I. Hippolytus occasionally preserves snatches of all 5 books, sometimes slightly different than Epiphanius, as Epiphanius says he at times condensed the Greek text and Hippolytus paraphrased it.
I know, I know, that is not your issue. Everyone is aware that the surviving texts attributed to Irenaeus by Epiphanius, and Hippolytus (through citations in Eusebius' works), were copied in later ages. Copies were not produced in the numbers that biblical manuscripts were, and unfortunately very early copies simply did not survive the harsher conditions of the West. Most biblical manuscripts from the early centuries were preserved in hot dry environments such as Egypt and the Middle East. These different manuscripts and fragments can be compared and contrasted. Yes they are not the same word for word, but the differences can be reconciled through principle of textual criticism that came into vogue among humanists in the 14th century and later, and when compared to other texts that preserve this or that about events and persons of earlier ages, some relative order and sense can be made of them. If there was any suspicion that any of this was pious fiction, the humanists would have pounced on it like they did the The Decretals of the Pseudo-Isidore Mercador.* Even though every single manuscript of the bible or church father was copied by Christians, there were all sorts of Christian sects throughout the ages. To think that the Roman Catholic church somehow managed to carefully control every single copy to conform to some standard set by Constantine just seems unreasonable to me. Even in the 10th to 15th centuries, when the earliest manuscripts of the church fathers were copied, there were copies being made by Eastern Orthodox and Roman Catholic, who certainly did not see eye to eye. DCH *The name "False Decretals" is sometimes extended to cover not only the papal letters forged by Isidore, and contained in his collection, but the whole collection, although it contains other documents, authentic or apocryphal, written before Isidore's time. The Collection of Isidore Mercador falls under three headings: (1) A list of sixty apocryphal letters or decrees attributed to the popes from St. Clement (88-97) to Melchiades (311-314) inclusive. Of these sixty letters fifty-eight are forgeries; they begin with a letter from Aurelius of Carthage requesting Pope Damasus (366-384) to send him the letters of his predecessors in the chair of the Apostles; and this is followed by a reply in which Damasus assures Aurelius that the desired letters were being sent. This correspondence was meant to give an air of truth to the false decretals, and was the work of Isidore. (2) A treatise on the Primitive Church and on the Council of Nicæa, written by Isidore, and followed by the authentic canons of fifty-four councils. It should be remarked, however, that among the canons of the second Council of Seville (page 438) canon vii is an interpolation aimed against chorepiscopi. (3) The letters mainly of thirty-three popes, from Silvester (314-335) to Gregory II (715-731). Of these about thirty letters are forgeries, while all the others are authentic. This is but a very rough description of their contents and touches only on the more salient points of a most intricate literary question. The earliest manuscripts date to the 9th century, probably between 847 and 852. Nobody cited them before that period, even though some of the letters it contains purport to originate centuries earlier. They seem to have been written to support Isadore's peculiar ideas about Canon law, with the aims of protecting the authority of bishops against abuses at the hands of regional political leaders as they established feudal society from the crumbling Roman empire. If you want an bona-fide case of forgery in the Catholic Church, there you go. The forger created a hundred documents and mixed them up with genuine sources, editing them into a whole intended to give a comprehensive collection of cannon law (although it omits issues of no interest to the compiler/forger). Take a look at this very thorough and rather objective article about it in the Catholic Encyclopedia. In it it describes the process by which the forgery was confirmed, and which documents were the forgeries. This is how one finds out whether some corpus of documents are forgeries. The article was written by a member of the Catholic Church itself, showing not all of them are hard liners! DCH Quote:
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09-26-2010, 08:19 PM | #109 | |||
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Hi DCHindley,
Thanks for this. I wish I had more time to research this. Hopefully, this week I'll have some time. I have just one quick comment. I think the problem with the translation "APOSTAURWQHNAI" (fenced off) is not that Latin AH and Tertullian both translate it wrongly as "crucifixam." This is a correct translation from Greek to Latin of the term. The problem is that the text of Epiphanius has "APOSTERHQHNAI" (was deprived) rather than "APOSTAURWQHNAI" (fenced off). Instead of assuming that Tertullian was copying from Latin AH, we may assume that Epiphanius or a previous scribe misread the original word APOSTAURWQHNAI and substituted the similar word APOSTERHQHNAI. This would be an equally or more plausible explanation for why the word is translated the way it is in both Latin documents, but a different word appears in the Later Greek document. Warmly, Jay Quote:
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09-27-2010, 12:37 AM | #110 | ||
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Again, it is just a case of futility trying to compare parts of a LATIN text with a Greek text in order to date them when the dates of composition for each one is NOT secured.
This is basic. The "TF", "Antiquities of the Jews" 18.3.3 was not deemed to be a forgery by ONLY comparing texts. "Against Heresies" contains numerous blatant errors and heresies that could NOT possibly have been known to the Church writers AFTER the supposed time of Irenaeus. This is Eusebius in "Church History" 1.10.1-2.. Quote:
But, this is the very Eusebius claiming that Irenaeus MAINTAINED orthodoxy of the Church in Church History 3.23.1-2 Quote:
How could ALL the Church writers NOT see or hear about "Against Heresies" 2.22 when Irenaeus made his HERETICAL and FALSE claims that the apostle John, the ELDERS and the Gospel show that Jesus was 50 years old when he suffered? How could ALL the Church writers not see or hear that Irenaeus claimed Jesus was crucified under Claudius? Eusebius mentioned Irenaeus about FORTY times in Church History and still did not write about the HERETICAL and False claims of Irenaeus. It is very likely that NO Church writer SAW or heard today's version of "Against Heresies". |
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