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Old 09-26-2010, 05:53 AM   #101
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Again, attempting to compare Greek with Latin texts cannot determine which was written first when none of the texts has been securely dated.

What is true and can be useful is that NO Church writer ADDRESSED or REFUTED the blatant ERRORS in "Against Heresies" which is a good indication that NO Church writer was AWARE of today's version of "Against Heresies".

No Church writer wrote that "Irenaeus" made grave mistakes in "Against Heresies" or the "Demonstration of Apostolic Preaching".

Clement of Alexandria claimed Jesus MUST have been 30 years when he DIED and MUST have preached ONLY one year. See "Stromata" 1

Irenaeus claimed Jesus MUST have been 50 years when he died and MUST have preached for MORE than one year.

Irenaeus claimed it was HERETICAL and CONTRARY to the Church to say that Jesus was 30 years old when he died.

Clement of Alexandria would have been an Heretic.

It is obvious that Clement of Alexandria was NOT AWARE of today's version of "Against Heresies".
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Old 09-26-2010, 05:55 AM   #102
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In "Against Heresies" the author claimed to have a list of bishops of the Church of Rome from the apostles to the bishop Eleutherius and that Linus was the first bishop after the apostles followed by Anacletus then Clement.

But, upon further examination the date of writing of "Against Heresies" become even more problematic when Irenaeus stated that LINUS was mentioned in an Epistle to Timothy by "Paul"

"Against Heresies" 3.3.3
Quote:
... 3. The[ blessed apostles, then, having founded and built up the Church, committed into the hands of Linus the office of the episcopate.

Of this Linus, Paul makes mention in the Epistles to Timothy......
Examine the ONLY verse which mentions LINUS in 2Timothy 4:21 -

So, once any Church writer was AWARE of the Epistles to Timothy then they should have known about Linus the first bishop of Rome AFTER the apostles.

Now, Tertullian in "Prescription Against Heretics" will claim that Peter ORDAINED Clement, NOT LINUS which is based on the RECORDS handed down from the Church of Rome.

"Prescription Against Heresies"

But, Tertullian appears to be AWARE of the Epistles to Timothy and in the very "Prescription Against Heretics" mentioned that Paul did write to Timothy.

"Prescription Against Heresies" 25
Quote:
...But here is, as we have said, the same madness, in their allowing indeed that the apostles were ignorant of nothing, and preached not any (doctrines) which contradicted one another, but at the same time insisting that they did not reveal all to all men, for that they proclaimed some openly and to all the world, while they disclosed others (only) in secret and to a few, because Paul addressed even this expression to Timothy: "O Timothy, guard that which is entrusted to you;" ...
So, how is it Tertullian appears to be AWARE of the Epistles to Timothy and did NOT know that Peter ORDAINED Linus and NOT CLEMENT?

When was it known in the Church of Rome that LINUS was the first Bishop of Rome after the apostles?

Tertullian did NOT know in the third century. He was supposed to have known who LINUS was in 2 Timothy. He was supposed to be AWARE of the list in "Against Heresies".

Tertullian could not have forgotten who was the FIRST bishop AFTER the apostles and he said it was CLEMENT. It was handed down from the registers of the Roman Church.

Who in the 3rd century SAW or HEARD that Tertullian claimed Clement was ordained the bishopric by Peter?

Who in the 2nd century SAW or HEARD that Irenaeus claimed Linus was the first bishop after the apostles?

Who in the 2nd century knew that LINUS in 2 Timothy was the FIRST bishop of the Church of Rome AFTER the apostles?

In which century was LINUS made the First bishop of the Church of Rome?

Tertullian did NOT know.

Eusebius knows that LINUS was the first bishop just like Irenaeus.

Eusebius knows that LINUS was mentioned in the Epistles to Timothy just like Irenaeus.

Tertullian did NOT know about LINUS as the first bishop in the 3rd century. And it has been deduced that 1 and 2 Timothy may not have been written at the time stated by by Irenaeus, Tertullian and Eusebius.

It would appear that today's version of "Against Heresies" was not known or heard of in the 2nd century and all or parts of its contents were unknown to Justin Martyr, Tertullian, Clement of Alexandria, Hippolytus, and Origen.
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Old 09-26-2010, 08:46 AM   #103
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Our next smilie: beating a dead hobby horse.
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Old 09-26-2010, 11:49 AM   #104
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Jay,

The final post on the raw data.

Riley points out that:

Quote:
Occasionally T and IL … together differ from the Greek text ("in hunc autem vel in Sophiam derivarat," Adv. Val. 9; "in hunc aeonem id est in Sophiam demutatam," IL 1, 2, 2; the Greek omits Sophia's name.)
Greek AH 1, 2, 2. (Epiphanius) PROHLATO DE POLU hO TELEUTAIOS KAI NEWTATOS THS DWDEKADOS, THS hUPO TOU ANQRWPOU KAI THS EKKLHSIAS, PROBEBLHMENOS AIWN, TOUTESTIN hH SWFIA, KAI EPAQE PAQOS ANEU THS EPIPLOKHS TOU ZUGOU TOU QELHTOU; hO ENHRXATO MEN EV TOIS PERI TON NOUN KAI THN ALHQEIAN, APESKHYE [by infection] DE [but] EIS [into] TOUTON [this] TON [the (one) = the Aeon] PARATRAPENTA [diverted]

Latin AH 1, 2, 2. Praesiliit autem valde ultimus et junior de duodecade ea, quae ab Anthropo et Ecclesia emissa fuerat, Aeon hoc est, Sophia: et passa est passionem sine complexu conjugis Theleti: quae exorsa quidem fuerat in iis, quae sunt erga Nun et Alethiam; derivavit [diverting] autem [indeed] in hunc [in this] AEonem [Aeon], id [that] est [is], Sophiam [Sophia] demutatam [changed/deteriorated]

ANF AH 1, 2, 2. But there rushed forth in advance of the rest that AEon who was much the latest of them, and was the youngest of the Duodecad which sprang from Anthropos and Ecclesia, namely Sophia, and suffered passion apart from the embrace of her consort Theletos. This passion, indeed, first arose among those who were connected with Nous and Aletheia, but passed as by contagion to this degenerate AEon, [that is, Sophia (this was omitted from ANF in deference to the Greek, although present in the Latin)]

Tert. Adv. Val. IX. namque ex illis duodecim Aeonibus quos Homo et Ecclesia ediderant novissima natu Aeon -- viderit soloecismus, Sophia nomen est --incontinentia sui sine coniugis Theleti societate prorumpit in patrem inquirere et genus contrahit vitii quod exorsum quidem fuerat in illis aliis, qui circa Nun, in hunc [in this (Aeon)] autem [indeed], id [that] est [is] in Sophiam [in Sophia], derivarat [diverted (such as the course of a stream of water)].

ANF Against the Valentinians 9. For of the twelve AEons which Homo and Ecclesia had produced, the youngest by birth (never mind the solecism, since Sophia (Wisdom) is her name), unable to restrain herself, breaks away without the society of her husband Theletus, in quest of the Father and contracts that kind of sin which had indeed arisen amongst the others who were conversant with Nus but had flowed on to this AEon, that is, to Sophia
Riley argues that "the latter passages [IL & Tertullian Ad.Val.] both add Sophia's name in the Latin because of the difference in genders: after "in hunc" one would not expect a feminine noun unless expressed. Note T's comment, "viderit soloecismus" (Adv. Val. 9)." [ A solescism is "something deviating from the proper, normal, or accepted order" per Merriam Webster Dictionary]
My comments are as follows: That "solecism" that Tertullian calls attention to in the first mention of the name Sophia seems to exist to call attention to the inconsistency of the Aeon Sophia, meaning Wisdom, falling into error. The second instance in these passages seems intended to identify "this (Aeon)" in the Greek AH as Sophia, to distinguish it from the other Aeons mentioned: Anthropos, Ekklesia, Theletus, Nous and Aletheia.

The Greek says the sins of those who associated with Nous (Mind) like an infection into this (Aeon – supplied by context) was diverted, referring to the Aeon Sophia without saying it by name.

The Latin translator says the sin of the circles about Nous diverted indeed into this Aeon, that is, the deteriorated Sophia.

Tertullian says the sins of those in the circles around Nous (Nus) were into this (Aeon) indeed, that is Sophia, diverted

Tertullian by implying the term Aeon rather than stating it, is actually closer to the Greek than the Latin translation of Irenaeus. Even so, both the Latin translator and Tertullian still manage to miss the concept of infection moving through a body that is present in the Greek word APESKHYE* Again, it is easier to see the Latin translator of Irenaeus missing this, with Tertullian going by what he found in Latin Irenaeus and not having access to Greek AH, than for Tertullian to have ALSO missed the point made in the Greek.

*See Dillon & Unger's book (or via: amazon.co.uk), which discusses the word on pages 136 & 137.
Lipsius noted that:

Quote:
both [Latin translator and Tertullian] failed to understand SUN TW EPIGIGNOMENW PAQEI (cum appendice passione, Iren.; appendicem passionem, Tert); both rendered APOSTAURWQHNAI [to fence around with posts] which means "vallo cingi" [to form a defensive perimeter] by crucifixam.
Greek AH 1, 2, 4. (Epiphanius) DIA DE TOU hOROU TOUTOU FASI KEKAQARQAI KAI ESTHRICQAI THN SOFIAN, KAI APOKATASTAQHNAI TH SUZUGIA; XWRISQEISHS GAR THS ENQUMHSEWS AP' AUTHS SUN TW EPIGINOMENW [overcoming/impending] PAQEI [passion], AUTHN MEN ENTOS PLHRWMATOS EINAI [or MEINAI per IL]; THN DE ENQUMHSIN AUTHS SUN TW PAQEI hUPO TOU hOROU AFORISQHNAI KAI APOSTERHQHNAI ["was deprived", or APOSTAURWQHNAI "to fence off" per IL & Tert], KAI EKTOS AUTOU GENOMENHN

Latin AH 1, 2, 4. Per Horon autem hunc dicunt mundatam et confirmatam Sophiam, et restitutam conjugi. Separata enim intentione ab ea cum appendice [an addition to something] passione, ipsam quidem infra Pleroma perseverasse. Concupiscentiam vero ejus cum passione ab Horo separatam et crucifixam, et extra eum factam

ANF AH 1, 2, 4. And by this Horus they declare that Sophia was purified and established, while she was also restored to her proper conjunction. For her enthymesis (or inborn idea) having been taken away from her, along with its supervening passion, she herself certainly remained within the Pleroma; but her enthymesis, with its passion, was separated from her by Horos, fenced off, and expelled from that circle.

Tert Adv. Val. X. [4] huius praedicant opera et repressam ab inlicitis et purgatam a malis et dienceps confirmatam Sophiam et coniugio restitutam, et ipsam quidem in Pleromatis censu remansisse, Enthymesin vero eius et illam appendicem [an addition to something] passionem ab Horo relegatam et crucifixam et extra eum factam

ANF Against The Valentinians 10. By his assistance they declare that Sophia was checked in her illicit courses, and purified from all evils, and henceforth strengthened (in virtue), and restored to the conjugal state: (they add) that she indeed remained within the bounds of the Pleroma, but that her Enthymesis, with the accruing Passion, was banished by Horos, and crucified and cast out from the Pleroma,
In response to this, Riley argues that "the … word, 'appendicem,' is a technical medical term which exactly fits here" and thus the agreement could be an independent use of a technical term that fits the context.
My comments: How does he know this is a technical term, and if so, for what? Lewis & Short does not show any technical meanings for the latin word "Appendix." My guess is that Latin Appendix "fits" because in Greek 1.2.2. Irenaeus uses the bona-fide Greek medical technical term APESKHYE (apeskEpse) which refers to the way illness moves from one part of the body to another, which we would call infection. However, see my comment on that passage above in which both the Latin translator and Tertullian completely ignore this sense of the word (Latin translator mistakes it for an attribute of Sophia -demutatem, Tertullian ignores this term completely)
Riley also argues that the latter "expression [i.e., crucified] comes from Paul, 'to have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires,' Gal. 5:24." [qui autem sunt Christi carnem crucifixerunt cum vitiis et concupiscentiis, And those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires.]
My comments: That is not an explanation for why the Latin translator and Tertullian would both independently mistranslate the Greek word for "fence out" as "crucifixion." It is more like an excuse. This matter, in fact, is the strongest evidence we have for assuming that Tertullian must have used the Latin translation of AH, and did not independently translate from a copy of Greek AH. Tertullian, working from the original Greek, would be very unlikely to have made this translation. If he had read "crucifixam" in a copy of Latin AH, and did not have a copy of Greek AH, then he might well assume that Irenaeus did in fact say such a thing.
Lipsius says:

Quote:
Both writers [the Latin translator of Irenaeus' AH and Tertullian] mistook the name EPIFANHS [Epiphanes, a gnostic teacher] for an adjective (clarus, [renouned/notorius] Iren., insignior, [notable/eminent] Tert.) [The name means "manifest" and corresponds to Latin illustris, insignis or clarus]
Greek AH 1.11.3 (Hippolytus) ALLOS DE TIS EPIFANHE DIDASKALOS AUTWN … HOUTOS LEGEI … [But another, a certain Epiphanes, a teacher of them … this one says …]

Latin AH 1.11.3. Alius vero quidam, qui et clarus est magister ipsorum, in majus sublime, et quasi in majorem agnitionem extensus, primam quaternationem dixit sic: est quidem ante omnes Proarche, Proanennoetos, et Inenarrabilis, et Innominabilis, quam ego Monotetem voco. Cum hac Monotete est virtus, quam et ipsam voco Honotetem.

ANF AH 1.11.3. There is another, who is a renowned teacher among them, and who, struggling to reach something more sublime, and to attain to a kind of higher knowledge, has explained the primary Tetrad as follows: There is [he says] a certain Proarche who existed before all things, surpassing all thought, speech, and nomenclature, whom I call Monotes (unity). Together with this Monotes there exists a power, which again I term Henotes (oneness).

Tert Adv. Val. XXXVII. [1] accipe alia ingenia circulatoria insignioris apud eos magistri qui et pontificali sua auctoritate in hunc modum censuit: "est (inquit) ante omnia Proarche inexcogitabile et inenarrabile innominabile quod ego nomino Monoteta. cum hac erit alia virtus quam et ipsam appello Honoteta.

ANF Against the Valentinians 37. Now listen to some other buffooneries of a master who is a great swell among them, and who has pronounced his dict with an even priestly authority. They run thus: There comes, says he, before all things Proarche, the inconceivable, and indescribable, and nameless, which I for my own part call Monotes (Solitude). With this was associated another power, to which also I give the name of Henotes (Unity).

My comment: Riley has no comment to this. This one doesn't swing things either way. However, if I am not mistaken, TIS in Greek usually introduces a name, not an attribute. Maybe the Latin translator of AH might miss this, but would Tertullian?
Wrapping up, I would appreciate it if our resident Greek and Latin experts could offer their illuminations. This means you, Mr Criddle and Mr Pearse, as well as any one else who can add their commentary to the language and style issues. I corresponded with Ben Smith, but he had to "politely decline" an invitation to discuss this on account of some personal challenges he is facing at this time.

Although I put a couple days effort into this series of posts, I am in no way an expert in Greek or especially Latin, and I am happy to admit I can have made mistakes in spelling or interpretation caused by unfamiliarity with Latin. My Greek transliteration uses C for Chi (which looks like an X in Greek) and X for Xi (ksee, which looks like the letter E without the vertical stroke), and Y for Psi (which looks like a saguaro cactus with two "arms").

DCH
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Old 09-26-2010, 12:42 PM   #105
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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
:hobbyhorse:
But, that is the summary of your own posts.

Examine an excerpt from your own post.

Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley
...TERTULLIAN AND IRENAEUS LATINUS

As I mentioned above, Irenaeus has been transmitted to us in a Latin version, IL.

The question has long been debated whether T used IL or vice versa.

This question could be settled if we knew the date of IL; unfortunately we do not....
You knew IN ADVANCE that you were beating YOUR own DEAD horse.

Please don't beat yourself to death. It is not worth it.

Irenaeus was a FAKE bishop and an incompetent liar and HERETIC.

It is CLEAR that Irenaeus did NOT know what was Heresy in the 2nd century.

In the 2nd century it was HERETICAL and FALSE to claim in any language, LATIN or GREEK, that it was preached and teached in the Church that:

1. Jesus was crucified at about the age of 50 years.

2. The Gospels show that Jesus was crucified at around 50 years of age.

3. A supposed apostle John preached and teached in Ephesus that Jesus was about 50 years old when he was crucified.

4. There were people who heard the supposed apostle John preach and teach in Ephesus that Jesus was about 50 years old when he suffered.

5. Jesus was born in 41st year of Augustus.

6. Jesus was crucified under the Emperor CLAUDIUS.


It is all over. The fraud of the history of the Church has been EXPOSED.

This is a partial list of some of the writers or writings under the names of these writers, in Greek, or Latin, that have been DELIBERATELY "historize" using non-historical events for "Church History":

1. Ignatius
2. Clement of Rome.
3. Papias
4. Polycarp.
5. IRENAEUS
6. Tertullian.
7. Clement of Alexandria.
8. Origen
9. Acts of the Apostles
10. The Pauline writings.
11. Eusebius.
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Old 09-26-2010, 01:11 PM   #106
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley
Wrapping up, I would appreciate it if our resident Greek and Latin experts could offer their illuminations. This means you, Mr Criddle and Mr Pearse, as well as any one else who can add their commentary to the language and style issues.
Yes, I am certainly not an expert in anything, but perhaps least of all, Greek and Latin, so I appreciate that you sought a response from a learned person, rather than from a curious onlooker.

As one whose inexpertise is legendary, allow me, nevertheless, to ask this question, again:

How can you claim to be quoting from "Irenaeus", while using quote, after quote, after quote, from Hippolytus' Greek texts, or rather, copies therefrom, dating from the 14th century?

avi
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Old 09-26-2010, 06:17 PM   #107
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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
...Although I put a couple days effort into this series of posts, I am in no way an expert in Greek or especially Latin, and I am happy to admit I can have made mistakes in spelling or interpretation caused by unfamiliarity with Latin. My Greek transliteration uses C for Chi (which looks like an X in Greek) and X for Xi (ksee, which looks like the letter E without the vertical stroke), and Y for Psi (which looks like a saguaro cactus with two "arms").

DCH
But, you knew in ADVANCE that you were NOT an expert in Greek and Latin but you continue to beat YOUR :deadhorse:
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Old 09-26-2010, 06:54 PM   #108
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Because it is easier than saying "Greek Irenaeus Bk.ch.vs as preserved by Epiphanius, bishop of Salamis, in his Medicine Chest against All Heresies bk.ch.vs, according to the editio princeps of Basle, 1544, edited by Johannes Oporinus, as preserved in Sancti Irenaei Episcopi Lugdunensis Libros quinque adversus haereses, edited by W Wigan Harvey STB, Cantabrigiae: Typis Academics, 1857" every time I cite the Greek. Epiphanius cited almost the entirety of book I. Hippolytus occasionally preserves snatches of all 5 books, sometimes slightly different than Epiphanius, as Epiphanius says he at times condensed the Greek text and Hippolytus paraphrased it.

I know, I know, that is not your issue. Everyone is aware that the surviving texts attributed to Irenaeus by Epiphanius, and Hippolytus (through citations in Eusebius' works), were copied in later ages. Copies were not produced in the numbers that biblical manuscripts were, and unfortunately very early copies simply did not survive the harsher conditions of the West. Most biblical manuscripts from the early centuries were preserved in hot dry environments such as Egypt and the Middle East.

These different manuscripts and fragments can be compared and contrasted. Yes they are not the same word for word, but the differences can be reconciled through principle of textual criticism that came into vogue among humanists in the 14th century and later, and when compared to other texts that preserve this or that about events and persons of earlier ages, some relative order and sense can be made of them. If there was any suspicion that any of this was pious fiction, the humanists would have pounced on it like they did the The Decretals of the Pseudo-Isidore Mercador.*

Even though every single manuscript of the bible or church father was copied by Christians, there were all sorts of Christian sects throughout the ages. To think that the Roman Catholic church somehow managed to carefully control every single copy to conform to some standard set by Constantine just seems unreasonable to me. Even in the 10th to 15th centuries, when the earliest manuscripts of the church fathers were copied, there were copies being made by Eastern Orthodox and Roman Catholic, who certainly did not see eye to eye.

DCH

*The name "False Decretals" is sometimes extended to cover not only the papal letters forged by Isidore, and contained in his collection, but the whole collection, although it contains other documents, authentic or apocryphal, written before Isidore's time. The Collection of Isidore Mercador falls under three headings:

(1) A list of sixty apocryphal letters or decrees attributed to the popes from St. Clement (88-97) to Melchiades (311-314) inclusive. Of these sixty letters fifty-eight are forgeries; they begin with a letter from Aurelius of Carthage requesting Pope Damasus (366-384) to send him the letters of his predecessors in the chair of the Apostles; and this is followed by a reply in which Damasus assures Aurelius that the desired letters were being sent. This correspondence was meant to give an air of truth to the false decretals, and was the work of Isidore.

(2) A treatise on the Primitive Church and on the Council of Nicæa, written by Isidore, and followed by the authentic canons of fifty-four councils. It should be remarked, however, that among the canons of the second Council of Seville (page 438) canon vii is an interpolation aimed against chorepiscopi.

(3) The letters mainly of thirty-three popes, from Silvester (314-335) to Gregory II (715-731). Of these about thirty letters are forgeries, while all the others are authentic. This is but a very rough description of their contents and touches only on the more salient points of a most intricate literary question.

The earliest manuscripts date to the 9th century, probably between 847 and 852. Nobody cited them before that period, even though some of the letters it contains purport to originate centuries earlier. They seem to have been written to support Isadore's peculiar ideas about Canon law, with the aims of protecting the authority of bishops against abuses at the hands of regional political leaders as they established feudal society from the crumbling Roman empire.

If you want an bona-fide case of forgery in the Catholic Church, there you go. The forger created a hundred documents and mixed them up with genuine sources, editing them into a whole intended to give a comprehensive collection of cannon law (although it omits issues of no interest to the compiler/forger).

Take a look at this very thorough and rather objective article about it in the Catholic Encyclopedia. In it it describes the process by which the forgery was confirmed, and which documents were the forgeries. This is how one finds out whether some corpus of documents are forgeries. The article was written by a member of the Catholic Church itself, showing not all of them are hard liners!

DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by avi View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley
Wrapping up, I would appreciate it if our resident Greek and Latin experts could offer their illuminations. This means you, Mr Criddle and Mr Pearse, as well as any one else who can add their commentary to the language and style issues.
Yes, I am certainly not an expert in anything, but perhaps least of all, Greek and Latin, so I appreciate that you sought a response from a learned person, rather than from a curious onlooker.

As one whose inexpertise is legendary, allow me, nevertheless, to ask this question, again:

How can you claim to be quoting from "Irenaeus", while using quote, after quote, after quote, from Hippolytus' Greek texts, or rather, copies therefrom, dating from the 14th century?

avi
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Old 09-26-2010, 08:19 PM   #109
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Hi DCHindley,

Thanks for this.

I wish I had more time to research this. Hopefully, this week I'll have some time. I have just one quick comment.

I think the problem with the translation "APOSTAURWQHNAI" (fenced off) is not that Latin AH and Tertullian both translate it wrongly as "crucifixam." This is a correct translation from Greek to Latin of the term. The problem is that the text of Epiphanius has "APOSTERHQHNAI" (was deprived) rather than "APOSTAURWQHNAI" (fenced off). Instead of assuming that Tertullian was copying from Latin AH, we may assume that Epiphanius or a previous scribe misread the original word APOSTAURWQHNAI and substituted the similar word APOSTERHQHNAI. This would be an equally or more plausible explanation for why the word is translated the way it is in both Latin documents, but a different word appears in the Later Greek document.

Warmly,

Jay

Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
Jay,

The final post on the raw data.

Riley points out that:

Quote:
Occasionally T and IL … together differ from the Greek text ("in hunc autem vel in Sophiam derivarat," Adv. Val. 9; "in hunc aeonem id est in Sophiam demutatam," IL 1, 2, 2; the Greek omits Sophia's name.)
Greek AH 1, 2, 2. (Epiphanius) PROHLATO DE POLU hO TELEUTAIOS KAI NEWTATOS THS DWDEKADOS, THS hUPO TOU ANQRWPOU KAI THS EKKLHSIAS, PROBEBLHMENOS AIWN, TOUTESTIN hH SWFIA, KAI EPAQE PAQOS ANEU THS EPIPLOKHS TOU ZUGOU TOU QELHTOU; hO ENHRXATO MEN EV TOIS PERI TON NOUN KAI THN ALHQEIAN, APESKHYE [by infection] DE [but] EIS [into] TOUTON [this] TON [the (one) = the Aeon] PARATRAPENTA [diverted]

Latin AH 1, 2, 2. Praesiliit autem valde ultimus et junior de duodecade ea, quae ab Anthropo et Ecclesia emissa fuerat, Aeon hoc est, Sophia: et passa est passionem sine complexu conjugis Theleti: quae exorsa quidem fuerat in iis, quae sunt erga Nun et Alethiam; derivavit [diverting] autem [indeed] in hunc [in this] AEonem [Aeon], id [that] est [is], Sophiam [Sophia] demutatam [changed/deteriorated]

ANF AH 1, 2, 2. But there rushed forth in advance of the rest that AEon who was much the latest of them, and was the youngest of the Duodecad which sprang from Anthropos and Ecclesia, namely Sophia, and suffered passion apart from the embrace of her consort Theletos. This passion, indeed, first arose among those who were connected with Nous and Aletheia, but passed as by contagion to this degenerate AEon, [that is, Sophia (this was omitted from ANF in deference to the Greek, although present in the Latin)]

Tert. Adv. Val. IX. namque ex illis duodecim Aeonibus quos Homo et Ecclesia ediderant novissima natu Aeon -- viderit soloecismus, Sophia nomen est --incontinentia sui sine coniugis Theleti societate prorumpit in patrem inquirere et genus contrahit vitii quod exorsum quidem fuerat in illis aliis, qui circa Nun, in hunc [in this (Aeon)] autem [indeed], id [that] est [is] in Sophiam [in Sophia], derivarat [diverted (such as the course of a stream of water)].

ANF Against the Valentinians 9. For of the twelve AEons which Homo and Ecclesia had produced, the youngest by birth (never mind the solecism, since Sophia (Wisdom) is her name), unable to restrain herself, breaks away without the society of her husband Theletus, in quest of the Father and contracts that kind of sin which had indeed arisen amongst the others who were conversant with Nus but had flowed on to this AEon, that is, to Sophia
Riley argues that "the latter passages [IL & Tertullian Ad.Val.] both add Sophia's name in the Latin because of the difference in genders: after "in hunc" one would not expect a feminine noun unless expressed. Note T's comment, "viderit soloecismus" (Adv. Val. 9)." [ A solescism is "something deviating from the proper, normal, or accepted order" per Merriam Webster Dictionary]
My comments are as follows: That "solecism" that Tertullian calls attention to in the first mention of the name Sophia seems to exist to call attention to the inconsistency of the Aeon Sophia, meaning Wisdom, falling into error. The second instance in these passages seems intended to identify "this (Aeon)" in the Greek AH as Sophia, to distinguish it from the other Aeons mentioned: Anthropos, Ekklesia, Theletus, Nous and Aletheia.

The Greek says the sins of those who associated with Nous (Mind) like an infection into this (Aeon – supplied by context) was diverted, referring to the Aeon Sophia without saying it by name.

The Latin translator says the sin of the circles about Nous diverted indeed into this Aeon, that is, the deteriorated Sophia.

Tertullian says the sins of those in the circles around Nous (Nus) were into this (Aeon) indeed, that is Sophia, diverted

Tertullian by implying the term Aeon rather than stating it, is actually closer to the Greek than the Latin translation of Irenaeus. Even so, both the Latin translator and Tertullian still manage to miss the concept of infection moving through a body that is present in the Greek word APESKHYE* Again, it is easier to see the Latin translator of Irenaeus missing this, with Tertullian going by what he found in Latin Irenaeus and not having access to Greek AH, than for Tertullian to have ALSO missed the point made in the Greek.

*See Dillon & Unger's book (or via: amazon.co.uk), which discusses the word on pages 136 & 137.
Lipsius noted that:


Greek AH 1, 2, 4. (Epiphanius) DIA DE TOU hOROU TOUTOU FASI KEKAQARQAI KAI ESTHRICQAI THN SOFIAN, KAI APOKATASTAQHNAI TH SUZUGIA; XWRISQEISHS GAR THS ENQUMHSEWS AP' AUTHS SUN TW EPIGINOMENW [overcoming/impending] PAQEI [passion], AUTHN MEN ENTOS PLHRWMATOS EINAI [or MEINAI per IL]; THN DE ENQUMHSIN AUTHS SUN TW PAQEI hUPO TOU hOROU AFORISQHNAI KAI APOSTERHQHNAI ["was deprived", or APOSTAURWQHNAI "to fence off" per IL & Tert], KAI EKTOS AUTOU GENOMENHN

Latin AH 1, 2, 4. Per Horon autem hunc dicunt mundatam et confirmatam Sophiam, et restitutam conjugi. Separata enim intentione ab ea cum appendice [an addition to something] passione, ipsam quidem infra Pleroma perseverasse. Concupiscentiam vero ejus cum passione ab Horo separatam et crucifixam, et extra eum factam

ANF AH 1, 2, 4. And by this Horus they declare that Sophia was purified and established, while she was also restored to her proper conjunction. For her enthymesis (or inborn idea) having been taken away from her, along with its supervening passion, she herself certainly remained within the Pleroma; but her enthymesis, with its passion, was separated from her by Horos, fenced off, and expelled from that circle.

Tert Adv. Val. X. [4] huius praedicant opera et repressam ab inlicitis et purgatam a malis et dienceps confirmatam Sophiam et coniugio restitutam, et ipsam quidem in Pleromatis censu remansisse, Enthymesin vero eius et illam appendicem [an addition to something] passionem ab Horo relegatam et crucifixam et extra eum factam

ANF Against The Valentinians 10. By his assistance they declare that Sophia was checked in her illicit courses, and purified from all evils, and henceforth strengthened (in virtue), and restored to the conjugal state: (they add) that she indeed remained within the bounds of the Pleroma, but that her Enthymesis, with the accruing Passion, was banished by Horos, and crucified and cast out from the Pleroma,
In response to this, Riley argues that "the … word, 'appendicem,' is a technical medical term which exactly fits here" and thus the agreement could be an independent use of a technical term that fits the context.
My comments: How does he know this is a technical term, and if so, for what? Lewis & Short does not show any technical meanings for the latin word "Appendix." My guess is that Latin Appendix "fits" because in Greek 1.2.2. Irenaeus uses the bona-fide Greek medical technical term APESKHYE (apeskEpse) which refers to the way illness moves from one part of the body to another, which we would call infection. However, see my comment on that passage above in which both the Latin translator and Tertullian completely ignore this sense of the word (Latin translator mistakes it for an attribute of Sophia -demutatem, Tertullian ignores this term completely)
Riley also argues that the latter "expression [i.e., crucified] comes from Paul, 'to have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires,' Gal. 5:24." [qui autem sunt Christi carnem crucifixerunt cum vitiis et concupiscentiis, And those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires.]
My comments: That is not an explanation for why the Latin translator and Tertullian would both independently mistranslate the Greek word for "fence out" as "crucifixion." It is more like an excuse. This matter, in fact, is the strongest evidence we have for assuming that Tertullian must have used the Latin translation of AH, and did not independently translate from a copy of Greek AH. Tertullian, working from the original Greek, would be very unlikely to have made this translation. If he had read "crucifixam" in a copy of Latin AH, and did not have a copy of Greek AH, then he might well assume that Irenaeus did in fact say such a thing.
Lipsius says:

Quote:
Both writers [the Latin translator of Irenaeus' AH and Tertullian] mistook the name EPIFANHS [Epiphanes, a gnostic teacher] for an adjective (clarus, [renouned/notorius] Iren., insignior, [notable/eminent] Tert.) [The name means "manifest" and corresponds to Latin illustris, insignis or clarus]
Greek AH 1.11.3 (Hippolytus) ALLOS DE TIS EPIFANHE DIDASKALOS AUTWN … HOUTOS LEGEI … [But another, a certain Epiphanes, a teacher of them … this one says …]

Latin AH 1.11.3. Alius vero quidam, qui et clarus est magister ipsorum, in majus sublime, et quasi in majorem agnitionem extensus, primam quaternationem dixit sic: est quidem ante omnes Proarche, Proanennoetos, et Inenarrabilis, et Innominabilis, quam ego Monotetem voco. Cum hac Monotete est virtus, quam et ipsam voco Honotetem.

ANF AH 1.11.3. There is another, who is a renowned teacher among them, and who, struggling to reach something more sublime, and to attain to a kind of higher knowledge, has explained the primary Tetrad as follows: There is [he says] a certain Proarche who existed before all things, surpassing all thought, speech, and nomenclature, whom I call Monotes (unity). Together with this Monotes there exists a power, which again I term Henotes (oneness).

Tert Adv. Val. XXXVII. [1] accipe alia ingenia circulatoria insignioris apud eos magistri qui et pontificali sua auctoritate in hunc modum censuit: "est (inquit) ante omnia Proarche inexcogitabile et inenarrabile innominabile quod ego nomino Monoteta. cum hac erit alia virtus quam et ipsam appello Honoteta.

ANF Against the Valentinians 37. Now listen to some other buffooneries of a master who is a great swell among them, and who has pronounced his dict with an even priestly authority. They run thus: There comes, says he, before all things Proarche, the inconceivable, and indescribable, and nameless, which I for my own part call Monotes (Solitude). With this was associated another power, to which also I give the name of Henotes (Unity).

My comment: Riley has no comment to this. This one doesn't swing things either way. However, if I am not mistaken, TIS in Greek usually introduces a name, not an attribute. Maybe the Latin translator of AH might miss this, but would Tertullian?
Wrapping up, I would appreciate it if our resident Greek and Latin experts could offer their illuminations. This means you, Mr Criddle and Mr Pearse, as well as any one else who can add their commentary to the language and style issues. I corresponded with Ben Smith, but he had to "politely decline" an invitation to discuss this on account of some personal challenges he is facing at this time.

Although I put a couple days effort into this series of posts, I am in no way an expert in Greek or especially Latin, and I am happy to admit I can have made mistakes in spelling or interpretation caused by unfamiliarity with Latin. My Greek transliteration uses C for Chi (which looks like an X in Greek) and X for Xi (ksee, which looks like the letter E without the vertical stroke), and Y for Psi (which looks like a saguaro cactus with two "arms").

DCH
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Old 09-27-2010, 12:37 AM   #110
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Again, it is just a case of futility trying to compare parts of a LATIN text with a Greek text in order to date them when the dates of composition for each one is NOT secured.

This is basic.

The "TF", "Antiquities of the Jews" 18.3.3 was not deemed to be a forgery by ONLY comparing texts.

"Against Heresies" contains numerous blatant errors and heresies that could NOT possibly have been known to the Church writers AFTER the supposed time of Irenaeus.

This is Eusebius in "Church History" 1.10.1-2..
Quote:

1. It was in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius, according to the evangelist, and in the fourth year of the governorship of Pontius Pilate, while Herod and Lysanias and Philip were ruling the rest of Judea, that our Saviour and Lord, Jesus the Christ of God, being about thirty years of age, came to John for baptism and began the promulgation of the Gospel.

2. The Divine Scripture says, moreover, that he passed the entire time of his ministry under the high priests Annas and Caiaphas, showing that in the time which belonged to the priesthood of those two men the whole period of his teaching was completed.

Since he began his work during the high priesthood of Annas and taught until Caiaphas held the office, the entire time does not comprise quite four years.
So, Eusebius claimed Jesus was NO MORE than 34 years old when he was crucified and NOT 50 years like Irenaeus.

But, this is the very Eusebius claiming that Irenaeus MAINTAINED orthodoxy of the Church in Church History 3.23.1-2

Quote:
1. At that time the apostle and evangelist John, the one whom Jesus loved, was still living in Asia.......

2. And that he was still alive at that time may be established by the testimony of two witnesses.

They should be trustworthy who have maintained the orthodoxy of the Church; and such indeed were Irenæus and Clement of Alexandria.
But, it was the very Irenaeus who claimed the apostle John preached that Jesus was fifty old when he was crucified.

How could ALL the Church writers NOT see or hear about "Against Heresies" 2.22 when Irenaeus made his HERETICAL and FALSE claims that the apostle John, the ELDERS and the Gospel show that Jesus was 50 years old when he suffered?

How could ALL the Church writers not see or hear that Irenaeus claimed Jesus was crucified under Claudius?

Eusebius mentioned Irenaeus about FORTY times in Church History and still did not write about the HERETICAL and False claims of Irenaeus.

It is very likely that NO Church writer SAW or heard today's version of "Against Heresies".
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