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11-05-2007, 03:11 PM | #1 |
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Do Jewish men really thank god every morning that they aren't women?
hitchens has said on a couple of occasions that jewish men thank god every morning in their prayers that they are not women and that they are not gentiles. is this really true?
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11-05-2007, 03:20 PM | #2 |
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11-05-2007, 03:37 PM | #3 |
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Considering menstruation, PMS, pregnancy, childbirth, post-partum depression and menopause, I’m pretty thankful I’m not a woman.
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11-05-2007, 03:39 PM | #4 |
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But considering the fact that women are mostly healthier, arguably smarter and longer lived, I'm not sure we have the best of the bargain. I'm just fine with who I am, but that damned testosterone gets me in trouble every time.
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11-05-2007, 03:41 PM | #5 |
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Strictly speaking, the blessing in question does not say anything about 'thanking': the translation is 'Blessed are you, Lord [that is, YHVH, but the name is not pronounced] our God, king of the universe, who has not made me a woman.' The prayerbook also contains a parallel blessing for women: 'Blessed are you, Lord [YHVH] our God, king of the universe, who has made me according to his will.' They occur near another blessing which says: 'Blessed are you, Lord [YHVH] our God, king of the universe, who has not made me a slave.' But what are Jewish slaves supposed to say?
The extent to which Jewish blessings are supposed to express thankfulness to God may perhaps be debated. There are blessings prescribed for all sorts of occasions: on hearing thunder; on seeing lightning; on seeing the sea; on going to the toilet; before eating; after eating; on seeing scholars of the Jewish law; on seeing scholars learned in secular subjects; on seeing people with deformities (in which God is described as the one who 'varies the form of his creatures'); on hearing good news (in which God is described as the one who 'is good and does good'); on hearing bad news (in which God is described as 'the true judge'). |
11-06-2007, 08:28 AM | #6 | |
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If you don't think that "blessing" is misogynistic enough, try Sirach 42
Quote:
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11-06-2007, 08:39 AM | #7 | |
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Reminds me of an old joke:
Quote:
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11-06-2007, 04:05 PM | #8 | ||
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Quote:
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11-06-2007, 05:23 PM | #9 |
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If Sirach is "completely unrecognised in Jewish tradition," then why is it, as The Anchor Bible Dictionary states, "quoted approvingly in the Talmud and other rabbinical writings" some 82 times? Why was it included in the Septuagint, a Jewish work, if it is "completely unrecognized in Jewish tradition"? :huh:
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11-07-2007, 12:12 AM | #10 | |
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Quote:
What I meant was that the book, as a book, doesn't have canonical status in Jewish bibles, or even the 'deuterocanonical' status assigned by Protestants. Obviously inclusion in the Septuagint means that it did then have some such status, but it doesn't now. Again, the references in the Talmud would have whatever status being referred to in the Talmud gives. My point is that a Catholic or Orthodox Christian quoting the book is quoting 'the Bible', but this is not true (now, as opposed to in ancient times) for an Orthodox Jew quoting it. |
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