FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 04-28-2012, 11:58 PM   #81
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by thief of fire View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post

Two Aramaic words in Mark 5 and four in Mark 15 do NOT show that gMark's stories originated in Aramaic--it shows that there are 6 Aramaic words in gMark and does NOT indicate at all the author of gMark was fluent in Aramaic.

And further, Ehrman destroys his own logical fallacies in "Did Jesus Exist?" on
The thing is that these aren't just loan words, which appear in every language, but sentences of dialogue, and they require an explantion. An Aramaic source may be the wrong explantion but to throw it aside we need a superior one.
THE explanation that Ehrman gives is NOT logical. "Talitha cumi" in gMark 5.41 does NOT indicate at all that the author was fluent in Aramaic or that the story originate in Aramaic.

The author gMark may have been simply trying to impress his readers by using two Aramaic words for his Jesus character.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 12:25 AM   #82
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2011
Location: springfield
Posts: 1,140
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by James The Least View Post

Yes, and this is a hugely important point. Mark is the earliest known non-Jewish writer in history to use the Hebrew scriptures in a non-Jewish religious context. Mark is quite confident and experienced in his use of "the scriptures" to establish his authority, but he never misses an opportunity to praise gentiles and denigrate "The Jews." This would have caused cognitive dissonance in any Jewish context, but Mark is a religious polemicist who is using "the scriptures" to prove that "The Jews" killed Lord Jesus, therefore giving Mark and the gentiles full authority to usurp the Hebrew scriptures and therefore God. Mark's Jesus is an etiological myth that functions as an explanation why gentiles now own the copyright to God and the scriptures, which they had been using for some time. The fall of Jerusalem gave life to the Jesus mythos by fulfilling the gentiles' interpretation of the scriptures.
Interesting post.

I do wonder ,now, though, why anyone would want a such a dysfunctional god as the biblical one?
thief of fire is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 01:19 AM   #83
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Barrayar
Posts: 11,866
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan View Post

1. There is no fixed translation/transliteration for Aramaic at that time.
That doesn't mean it wasn't possible to get something wrong. Mark, for instance got Boanerges wrong. That's not the right transliteration from the Aramaic. I'll quote an actual credentialed expert on the relevant languages here

This is only one example of a mistake Casey finds in Mark's translations. There is much more, and I am inclined to listen to someone who is a credentialed expert and makes a substantive linguistic argument than I am to dismissive handwaving from non-experts.
""'Secondly, this is further evidence that Mark was a normal and fallible bilingual,"""

Yes, D'oh. Exactly what I have been saying. Thanks, Dio. Sometimes Mark's errors are meaningful, sometimes they are not. Either way, confusion here does not show that Mark is working off a source. It shows that Mark was confused.

Quote:
When they are literal idioms in Aramaic, but not Greek, they are indicators of Aramaic sources. "Son of Man" doesn't mean anything in Greek.
Exactly. They are translations, as I said.

Quote:
Maurice Casey, who I quoted above, is one of the world's foremost experts on 1st century, Palestinian Aramaic, and you have to do better than "his evidence is shit," when you are not credentialed in those languages yourself and have not offered a substantive, evidentiary rebuttal. Saying Casey's arguments are not at least reasonable is in itself, unreasonable.
I've read Casey. I don't see how it is possible to ascribe the term "method" to the mode of operation of a scholar who thinks Judas was a real person and who reads the mind of Jesus. Truly he is a genius! Steve Carr has been having a field day with Casey's mind numbing historical naivete.

You might also note that expertise in Aramaic does not equal skill in literary and historical analysis, and that citing him as an expert in the former to offer support for the latter is simply an argument from faux authority. Especially when Casey is very obviously engaged in apologetics and not scholarship.

It's really simple, Dio. Casey has no methodology that can support his claims. He can't differentiate between translation and between dependency on a source, no such methodology exists. He can't show the existence of sources that go back to Jesus. If he had such a methodology, you would simply bring it forth and show me and terminate this discussion.

Vorkosigan
Vorkosigan is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 01:24 AM   #84
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Barrayar
Posts: 11,866
Default

Quote:
The thing is that these aren't just loan words, which appear in every language, but sentences of dialogue, and they require an explantion. An Aramaic source may be the wrong explantion but to throw it aside we need a superior one.
The superior explanation is in the text itself, which it offers to us -- it translates back and forth between greek and aramaic -- the writer tells us that he's translating! In other cases the translation is obvious, like 15:34. Perhaps he did the translations, perhaps he asked someone. Same thing. Any explanation that calls for sources is vastly inferior since it multiplies entities unnecessarily as well as calling forth an unsubstantiated chain of transmission. If you want to posit Aramaic sources, show me the chain of transmission. And of course, because positing an aramaic source is an apologetic rather than scholarly move, no such chain exists.

Vorkosigan
Vorkosigan is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 01:54 AM   #85
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2011
Location: springfield
Posts: 1,140
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan View Post
If you want to posit Aramaic sources, show me the chain of transmission. And of course, because positing an aramaic source is an apologetic rather than scholarly move, no such chain exists.

Vorkosigan
If I wanted to I would argue on the basis of the style grammar and word order.
thief of fire is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 02:23 AM   #86
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Barrayar
Posts: 11,866
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by thief of fire View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan View Post
If you want to posit Aramaic sources, show me the chain of transmission. And of course, because positing an aramaic source is an apologetic rather than scholarly move, no such chain exists.

Vorkosigan
If I wanted to I would argue on the basis of the style grammar and word order.
<shrug> Show me. That would be very interesting.

Vorkosigan
Vorkosigan is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 03:22 AM   #87
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by thief of fire View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan View Post
If you want to posit Aramaic sources, show me the chain of transmission. And of course, because positing an aramaic source is an apologetic rather than scholarly move, no such chain exists.

Vorkosigan
If I wanted to I would argue on the basis of the style grammar and word order.
The other leg plays Jingle Bells.

It's the style, grammar, word order, idioms and vocabulary that identify a Latin substratum to Mark. It was fairly certainly written in Rome. Can you explain the form "Herodian" any other way? It shows a Latin gentilic suffix used in Greek. I've shown many Latin traces in Mark here in the past, the explanations for a Roman audience is one of the obvious examples--a hall is explained as a paetorium and two leptas are explained as a quadrans. What use are such explanations to a non-Roman Greek audience??

And while I'm here Casey's inability to explain the /oa/ in Boamerges shows that he doesn't know what he's doing.
spin is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 03:25 AM   #88
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2011
Location: springfield
Posts: 1,140
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by thief of fire View Post

If I wanted to I would argue on the basis of the style grammar and word order.
<shrug> Show me. That would be very interesting.

Vorkosigan
The semitic style found in Mark (and other places in the NT) seems an easier way to argue to me, though Casey is probably wanting to do something a little different, I guess <shrugs back>.
These features make Mark very unusual if Mark is literature. Its a very progressive piece of art.
thief of fire is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 03:26 AM   #89
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by thief of fire View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by James The Least View Post

Yes, and this is a hugely important point. Mark is the earliest known non-Jewish writer in history to use the Hebrew scriptures in a non-Jewish religious context. Mark is quite confident and experienced in his use of "the scriptures" to establish his authority, but he never misses an opportunity to praise gentiles and denigrate "The Jews." This would have caused cognitive dissonance in any Jewish context, but Mark is a religious polemicist who is using "the scriptures" to prove that "The Jews" killed Lord Jesus, therefore giving Mark and the gentiles full authority to usurp the Hebrew scriptures and therefore God. Mark's Jesus is an etiological myth that functions as an explanation why gentiles now own the copyright to God and the scriptures, which they had been using for some time. The fall of Jerusalem gave life to the Jesus mythos by fulfilling the gentiles' interpretation of the scriptures.
Interesting post.

I do wonder ,now, though, why anyone would want a such a dysfunctional god as the biblical one?
Gods tend to reflect their creators.
spin is offline  
Old 04-29-2012, 03:36 AM   #90
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Iceland
Posts: 761
Default

Quote:
...and two leptas are explained as a quadrans.
I did a quick google search for exactly this stuff earlier. I've heard this example earlier, but I wasn't sure of the exact frequency of these coins in the ancient world. Must admit that I'm not well versed in ancient coins. :Cheeky:

You guys know of any good sources discussing this leptas/quadrans example? I imagine that we can have a pretty good idea of where in the empire these coins were in much use.

From a very superficial search, it seems to me that both leptas and quadrans were issued in Palestine.
hjalti is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 10:11 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.