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Old 03-10-2005, 05:41 AM   #21
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By the way, 1 Peter can be established as pseudoepigraphical by more than the literary Greek (and it's not just a question of a Palestinian fisherman learning Greek, it's a distnctly formal and educated literary style of Greek which contains Greek philosophical elements and references. It shows that the author had a formal Greek education. Peter was not just Palestinian but illiterate. He couldn't read or write in any language, much less acadaemic Greek).





Considering that maybe it was written in the 70's (just hypothetically), would this still apply?

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He also could easily have had the assistance of a scribe (a common enough practice at the time). There are some indications in Pauline epistles that epistle writers were using that practice.
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Old 03-10-2005, 06:16 AM   #22
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Peter, by tradition, was dead in the 70's.

The work shows more than the hand of a scribe, it's a complete Greek composition steeped in Greek education.
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Old 03-10-2005, 06:18 AM   #23
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In addition to the language problems, though, there are also theological and historical details in the work which tag and date it as a late 1st century Pauline document. One of the most significant clues is that the author talks about Christians being persecuted in Asia Minor. Christians were (allegedly) persecuted by Nero in 60's but that was only in Rome. There was a wider persecution of Christians under Domitian in the 90's and that's what the Epistle refers to.
For someone like me who is somewhat skeptical of a "wider persecution of Christians under Domitian in the 90's" are there any other historical details in your view that tag and date it to the last 1st century?
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Old 03-10-2005, 06:30 AM   #24
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For someone like me who is somewhat skeptical of a "wider persecution of Christians under Domitian in the 90's" are there any other historical details in your view that tag and date it to the last 1st century?
It's interesting that the two bad boys of the early empire, Nero and Domitian (excluding Caligula as being too early), were also supposed to have been the earliest persecutors, isn't it? It's easier to whip bad boys.


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Old 03-10-2005, 06:51 AM   #25
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For someone like me who is somewhat skeptical of a "wider persecution of Christians under Domitian in the 90's" are there any other historical details in your view that tag and date it to the last 1st century?
Nothing that says it couldn't have been later. I'm not sure about how widespread the Domitian persecution was either but I cited it as something of a terminus a quo. I'm certain that there was no persecution before Domitian (I don't much buy that Nero scapegoated Christians for the fire), so I'm asserting late 1st century at a minimum, not suggesting that it couldn't have been later (although I could have been more clear in my previous post. I cited the reign of Domitian more categorically than I should have).

Isn't it also doubtful that the Christian communities named in 1 Peter existed before the 90's?

Incidentally, are you skeptical of persecution of Christians/Jews at all under Domitian or just questioning the scope? How do you understand Revelation as it relates to Domitian?
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Old 03-10-2005, 12:17 PM   #26
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Nothing that says it couldn't have been later. I'm not sure about how widespread the Domitian persecution was either but I cited it as something of a terminus a quo. I'm certain that there was no persecution before Domitian (I don't much buy that Nero scapegoated Christians for the fire), so I'm asserting late 1st century at a minimum, not suggesting that it couldn't have been later (although I could have been more clear in my previous post. I cited the reign of Domitian more categorically than I should have).
Thanks for clearing that up.

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Isn't it also doubtful that the Christian communities named in 1 Peter existed before the 90's?
Paul gives us evidence for Christian communities in two of the five places: Asia and Galatia. If the claim that Marcion was the son of a bishop in Pontus is correct, then that might be evidence for Christianity in that province no later than the 80s. Other than that, we've got the unenviable task of trying to figure out to what extent the absence of evidence for Christianity in the remaining provinces should be considered evidence of absence.

Reviewing Peter Kirby's survey of opinion for 1 Peter on Early Christian Writings, there's a comment by Elliott that sounds promising as a way to date 1 Pet by relating it to datable historical developments: "Moreover, the sequence of provinces given in 1:1 may reflect not only the intended route of the letter but also the alteration of these provincial boundaries undertaken by Vespasian in 72 c.e. (Elliott 1981: 60)." That'll need following up.

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Incidentally, are you skeptical of persecution of Christians/Jews at all under Domitian or just questioning the scope? How do you understand Revelation as it relates to Domitian?
I'm still baffled about when to date Revelation, in part due to my concerns about the extent of the Domitianic persecution. As for the Domitianic persecution itself, the only evidence for it I am aware of that is of any worth to me is the exile of Flavia Domitilla and perhaps the execution of Titus Flavius Clemens. But if Christianity had any role in these cases, I would view it as mostly pretextual with the main motivation being political.

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