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06-03-2008, 01:44 PM | #1 |
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Grammar of Josephus Jesus/James account
I have encountered claims that Josephus account of Jesus as brother of James is weird language construct ("brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James"). Reasons given are double attribution (who was called, whose name), and mentioning Jesus before James, who is subject of story. These indeed give sense in English, but I am not sure about greek.
Can someone with knowledge of greek examine greek josephus? Greek text is online here Also, I'd prefer if someone with academic background in this area could comment and also mention his credentials, so I can cite him as "authority" in my article. Thanks. |
06-03-2008, 06:19 PM | #2 |
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I think you will find what you seek in this previous thread:
Jesus called Christ in Josephus AJ 20.9.1 spin is our resident champion* of the "bad grammar" argument for this passage. *as in "defender" not necessarily "victor" |
06-03-2008, 06:59 PM | #3 |
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While not meeting the criteria you list, this may also be of help in providing an explanation for this passage:
http://www.rationalrevolution.net/ar...history.htm#10 Scroll down to the section on Josephus. Specifically, see the part that talks about Hegesippus. You may want to just do a search on the page for Hegesippus. |
06-03-2008, 08:33 PM | #4 | |||
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Quote:
What are at issue, rather, are the tendencies of the author; the penchant either to supply or not to supply a previous mention of the familial relation is not a grammatical issue, since grammar does not require antecedents for nouns. Quote:
Quote:
Ben. |
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06-04-2008, 01:49 AM | #5 | |
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Ben: Thank you, I realized that "grammar" wasn't the best word, but my limited english caused I couldn't think of better one. Maybe it would be better to ask if such expression style was common in greek (especially for Josephus), or whether it appears as later insertion.
Quote:
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06-04-2008, 05:48 AM | #6 | |
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Quote:
Ben. |
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06-04-2008, 08:56 AM | #7 |
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Thanks, Ben
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