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Old 01-28-2007, 02:33 PM   #1
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Default Basis for "New Covenant?"

Hi all

Sometimes Christians say that they are no longer bound by the "old covenant" ie Old Testament Law because after Jesus they are now under the "new covenant."

What is the basis for this claim? Is there a particular biblical verse, or is this the result of some theological interpretation?

I'm involved in a debate on another forum, and this has come up. I would apprectiate any help anyone can give me on this topic. Thanks!
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Old 01-28-2007, 05:38 PM   #2
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Sometimes Christians say that they are no longer bound by the "old covenant" ie Old Testament Law because after Jesus they are now under the "new covenant." What is the basis for this claim? Is there a particular biblical verse, or is this the result of some theological interpretation?
There are various NT passages which teach that the old covenant was abolished by the death of Jesus and replaced with a new covenant. One such passage is Hebrews 8:6-8:

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6 But Jesus has now obtained a more excellent ministry, and to that degree he is the mediator of a better covenant, which has been enacted through better promises. 7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, there would have been no need to look for a second one. 8 God finds fault with them when he says:"The days are surely coming, says the Lord,when I will establish a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah;
See also Colossians 2:13-16; Galatians 3:23-25; Romans 7:1-6; Hebrews 9:15-17; Hebrews 10:9 ff.

A mistake that some skeptics make is to accuse Christians of inconsistency if the latter don't keep the sabbath, abstain from "unclean" meats, avoid mixed fabrics, etc. There is, however, an inconsistency, which was mentioned by Earl Doherty in this post:

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Originally Posted by Earl Doherty
My own favorite passage in the OT about the future covenant God would establish with his people is Jeremiah 31:33-4. Can anyone find a hint of Son Jesus in this:

"I will set my law within them and write it on their hearts; I will become their God and they shall become my people. No longer need they teach one another to know the Lord; all of them, high and low alike, shall know me, says the Lord, for I will forgive their wrondoing and remember their sin no more."

As I ask in my book Challenging the Verdict: "If salvation is eventually to be dependent on knowing and believing in Jesus, why is God's forecast of his future requirements limited to knowing the Lord, meaning himself? If Jesus' sacrificial death would be required to forgive sins, why does God's reference to the cancellation of sins make no mention of it?"
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Old 01-28-2007, 06:14 PM   #3
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"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. "
Matthew 5:17-18
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Old 01-28-2007, 07:17 PM   #4
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"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. "
Matthew 5:17-18
Which is why the writer of John slipped this little chestnut in:

John 19:30 When he had received the drink, Jesus said, "It is finished." With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.

ball is in your court.
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Old 01-29-2007, 08:57 AM   #5
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Thanks for the verses, John. That answered one question--but it appears that Jesus never says--or is never made to say--explicitly that believers are free from the old law. In fact, Mat:5 17-18 seems to have Jesus saying the exact opposite--but then there is that final phrase "until everything is accomplished."

So I guess I'm still not really clear what principle Christians use to decide which law is applicable--if Leviticus' admonishments against homosexuality are applicable, why not those against cutting hair, or wearing mixed-fiber clothing? Is it because homosexuality is explicitly forbidden in the NT, that this part of the "old law" remains in force? (I'm working from memory here; can't remember where in the NT this admonition might be, but I think its in some of Paul's writings.)

Thanks for the help,
T.
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Old 01-29-2007, 09:01 AM   #6
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Which is why the writer of John slipped this little chestnut in:

John 19:30 When he had received the drink, Jesus said, "It is finished." With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.
That statement could refer to any number of things, from Jesus's trials and tribulations on earth to a roast turkey that he had baking in another dimension.

Before you get overly excited, reread this quote from Matthew chapter 5 (especially the part in italics):
"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished."

Now, ask yourself this: Did heaven and earth disappear?
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Old 01-29-2007, 09:58 AM   #7
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So I guess I'm still not really clear what principle Christians use to decide which law is applicable
The same thing most who call themselves Christian use to decide what bible passages mean: personal preference.
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--if Leviticus' admonishments against homosexuality are applicable, why not those against cutting hair, or wearing mixed-fiber clothing?
Aren't these laws specifically for the Jews?

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Is it because homosexuality is explicitly forbidden in the NT, that this part of the "old law" remains in force?
I'd think it was because males were generally more aggressive in their pursuit of sexual satisfaction than females. This made the straight guys want to make homoness "a sin" so they don't end up drunk and taken advantage of. I can't really complain to much about the benefits of being able to go to a bar without other dudes hitting on me. Although, sometimes gay people do hit on me. It's very annoying to hang out with an unattractive person who keeps trying to get in your pants.

.......

I'll tell you about my one friend. Before the dude starting coming on to me all the time, he was a nice person to talk to. He was a friend I could talk to about stuff that was on my mind, he would talk about his life, whatever. I still can talk to him about serious stuff every once in a while, but I can't have a light hearted conversation (with him) without him flirting, so I avoid talking to him, for the most part. I don't want to bring him around my other friends, because he would hit on them and make them uncomfortable. The dude is just creepy. He even looks creepy. Lol. It's almost like he is a living example of creepiness. Anyway, I've told him in the past that I don't like getting flirted with by him, and he can't or won't stop doing it. So, he is not someone I want to have around.

I can totally understand the militaries "Don't ask, Don't tell policy." Before my friend got his foot in the door by telling me he was gay, he didn't hit on me. I really don't want him to be comfortable hitting on me and/or my friends, because if he was not comfortable doing so, guess what? He wouldn't make a lot of other people uncomfortable.

Most of us know sexually aggressive males and/or females. If I was a women, and I knew a sexually aggressive heterosexual male, I wouldn't want him around. Since I am a man, I don't want sexually aggressive homosexual males (or sexually aggressive unattractive heterosexual females) around me.

So I understand why Christian males like promoting the idea that homosexuality is a sin. I'm not saying it's right to do so, but I understand.
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Old 01-29-2007, 10:08 AM   #8
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Thanks for the verses, John. That answered one question--but it appears that Jesus never says--or is never made to say--explicitly that believers are free from the old law. In fact, Mat:5 17-18 seems to have Jesus saying the exact opposite--but then there is that final phrase "until everything is accomplished."
Right, and Christians can argue, in light of the passages which I quoted before, that when Jesus died is when "everything" was accomplished.

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Originally Posted by T. Lane
So I guess I'm still not really clear what principle Christians use to decide which law is applicable--if Leviticus' admonishments against homosexuality are applicable, why not those against cutting hair, or wearing mixed-fiber clothing? Is it because homosexuality is explicitly forbidden in the NT, that this part of the "old law" remains in force? (I'm working from memory here; can't remember where in the NT this admonition might be, but I think its in some of Paul's writings.)
You are probably thinking of Romans 1 regarding homosexuality. There is no hard-and-fast rule to determine which laws "carried over" beyond the death of Jesus, but short of an explicit NT declaration about particular behaviors (Galatians 5:19-21 for example), Paul gives a general principle in Romans 13:8-10:

Quote:
8 Owe no one anything, except to love one another; for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 The commandments, "You shall not commit adultery; You shall not murder; You shall not steal; You shall not covet"; and any other commandment, are summed up in this word, "Love your neighbor as yourself." 10 Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore, love is the fulfilling of the law.
There were also laws which gave Jews a separate identity as God's chosen people (Leviticus 20:26, Deuteronomy 7:6) such as food laws, circumcision, and the sabbath, but since Jew and Gentile can both become Christians and worship the true God (Galatians 3:28; Ephesians 2:11 ff; Acts 15), such distinctions are no longer relevant.
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Old 01-29-2007, 10:59 AM   #9
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Basically, this was a matter of dispute among early Christians, and the Gospels are a battle ground of ideology, where this argument was played out. According to some Gospels, Mark, etc., Jesus abolished the law, according to others, Matthew, etc., he didn't.
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Old 01-29-2007, 05:17 PM   #10
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Hi all

Sometimes Christians say that they are no longer bound by the "old covenant" ie Old Testament Law because after Jesus they are now under the "new covenant."

What is the basis for this claim? Is there a particular biblical verse, or is this the result of some theological interpretation?

I'm involved in a debate on another forum, and this has come up. I would apprectiate any help anyone can give me on this topic. Thanks!

My handy dandy list. There simply is no doubt that Paul considered the OT law defunct as defunct can be. Further the Sermon on the Mount supports this, since Jesus contrasts the Law (which is conduct based) with his new standard which is intent based.

Jesus' trope "You have heard, but I say. . ." is essentially an enumeration of the replacement of the Law.


Romans 7:4 - Likewise, my
brethren, you have died to the law
through the body of Christ, so that
you may belong to another, to him
who has been raised from the dead
in order that we may bear fruit for
God.

Romans 7:6 - But now we are
discharged from the law, dead to
that which held us captive, so that
we serve not under the old written
code but in the new life of the Spirit.
Romans 13:8 - Owe no one
anything, except to love one
another; for he who loves his
neighbor has fulfilled the law.

Galatians 2:19 - For I through the
law died to the law, that I might live
to God.

Galatians 3:10 - For all who rely
on works of the law are under a
curse; for it is written, "Cursed be
every one who does not abide by all
things written in the book of the law,
and do them."

Galatians 3:23 - Now before
faith came, we were confined under
the law, kept under restraint until
faith should be revealed

Galatians 5:4 - You are severed
from Christ, you who would be
justified by the law; you have fallen
away from grace.

Galatians 5:18 - But if you are
led by the Spirit you are not under
the law.

Ephesians 2:15 - by abolishing
in his flesh the law of
commandments and ordinances,
that he might create in himself one
new man in place of the two, so
making peace,

Hebrews 7:12 -
For when there
is a change in the priesthood, there
is necessarily a change in the law
as well.

Hebrews 10:1 - For since the
law has but a shadow of the good
things to come instead of the true
form of these realities, it can never,
by the same sacrifices which are
continually offered year after year,
make perfect those who draw near

James 1:25 - But he who looks
into the perfect law, the law of
liberty, and perseveres, being no
hearer that forgets but a doer that
acts, he shall be blessed in his
doing.

James 2:10 - For whoever keeps
the whole law but fails in one point
has become guilty of all of it.
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