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Old 01-12-2009, 01:28 PM   #921
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Still dodging and weaving Steve
The question remains;
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most specifically -whomever- the wife and children of Ex 21:4 might be.

Quote:
"If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself."
Now, again, how about addressing the rightness and the morality of your god making laws that legalized the holding of totally innocent children in captivity to life-long cradle to grave slavery?
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Originally Posted by sschlichter
I tried to make you understand but you will not explore the relationship of God and death.

You beleive there could be a just eternal God that allows the death of children. If you try to recioncile that then you might be on your way to understanding the answer that I already gave you.

if you don't then there is no answer I could give you.
Problem is Steve, you still HAVE NOT even attempted to provide any answer the specific question that you were asked.
"Again, the question is not at all whether these innocent children, five or more generations latter were still being made subservient slaves to Israel, by "the god of the universe", the text itself makes that fact quite clear.
So yes, there indeed is and was "No question" on that subject. But the question that I DID pose to you was;

How do you defend the rightness or the morality of the god/laws/priests that were responsible for maintaining these innocents in their condition of permanent (cradle to grave) slavery?
" que crickets
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Old 01-12-2009, 01:32 PM   #922
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Why not take a deep breath and discuss my blunders with me?
But I have told you about a thread at http://www.freeratio.org/showthread.php?t=259943 at the General Religious Discussions Forum on several occasions, but you have continued to refuse to make any posts in that thread. The title of the thread is "It is doubtful that a God inspired the Bible." I discussed several blunders that you made.
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Old 01-12-2009, 01:34 PM   #923
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Why do you believe I exist?
Why do you believe that the God of the Bible exists? If you answer my question, I will answer your question.

Asking questions is easy. Answering questions is much more difficult, which would easily be proven if you answered my question. You want me to answer your question, but you do not want to answer my question. That is not fair.
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Old 01-12-2009, 01:40 PM   #924
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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
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most specifically -whomever- the wife and children of Ex 21:4 might be.



Now, again, how about addressing the rightness and the morality of your god making laws that legalized the holding of totally innocent children in captivity to life-long cradle to grave slavery?
Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter
I tried to make you understand but you will not explore the relationship of God and death.

You beleive there could be a just eternal God that allows the death of children. If you try to recioncile that then you might be on your way to understanding the answer that I already gave you.

if you don't then there is no answer I could give you.
Problem is Steve, you still HAVE NOT even attempted to provide any answer the specific question that you were asked.
"Again, the question is not at all whether these innocent children, five or more generations latter were still being made subservient slaves to Israel, by "the god of the universe", the text itself makes that fact quite clear.
So yes, there indeed is and was "No question" on that subject.But the question that I DID pose to you was;

How do you defend the rightness or the morality of the god/laws/priests that were responsible for maintaining these innocents in their condition of permanent (cradle to grave) slavery?
I guess all I can do is repeat what I said. Since their servitude was not abusive, and they were being saved from a culture that sacrificed them to a false God, and they were not taken from their homes, and not taken from their families, and were removed from the presence of false Gods, and were now given rest on the sabbath, and were now protected by just laws, and were expected to not work on feast days. then I find it an act of mercy when all their neighbors were killed for their offenses. they are the ones that made the deal with the Isrealites. All they had to do was leave. If you are a crack addict and allowed to raise kids, they will probably be crack addicts as well. Child abusers are usually the victims of child abuse. Each victim becomes a perpetrator in time. No man can judge this but it is certainly not immoral for God to do what he will.

You stated that you think that the existence of a just eternal god is not contradictory to the existence of death and specifcally the death of children. Did you not? Surely, you know that children die all the time, don't you? What is the difference?
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Old 01-12-2009, 01:47 PM   #925
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No, Jesus did not change the laws.
Sure He did.
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Originally Posted by Matthew 5 : 38-39


38Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth:

39But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.
I follow that, but not because I believe Jesus is God. If Jesus is God why would He tell people not to follow what the law said about an eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth?

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Originally Posted by Matthew 5 : 40
40And if any man will sue thee at the law, and take away thy coat, let him have thy cloak also.
This goes against Deuteronomy 24: 10-13


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I don't doubt this entirely, but the Nazis saw Jews as the reason Germany lost WWI and and saw Jews as the reason WWII was started. Killing all the Jews was seen as the only way the Nazis saw as preventing more German deaths and the economic depression caused by WWI and it's aftermath on the Germans.

Wouldn't this be the same as the Israelis killing the Hittites, or the US Army's bombing of Japan?
exactly. They did not have the moral capacity to know right from wrong.
Who didn't have the moral capacity to know right from wrong? The Nazi's? The Israelis', the Hittites, the US, or the Japanese?
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So, rounding up families and children from among your own citizenry and gassing them is the same as bombing a country that has declared war against you?
Sure, in my opinion they are the same. How many children under 20 died when the US bombed Hiroshima?
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I am sure I am misunderstanding you.
Killing is immoral.

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yes, but if they are wrong then the blood of those killed is on my hands.
So you wouldn't question an order to kill.


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It is supported at the rate of over 1 million / year.
I'd say more than that, but you are saying while they are being born. For humans it's usually nine months from conception to being born. A lot can happen to both beings in nine months.
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Do you need pictures?
I've seen enough, but it still doesn't support that millions of abortions are performed while the babies are being born.
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I think life could start at conception and it is immoral to kill those who might be human.
Even in cases of rape and/or incest?


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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post

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You probably think homosexuality is immoral, but what about unmarried men and women, is it immoral for them to have sex without being married?
yes, it is immoral but no more immoral than it is to hate those that you feel are being immoral.

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What about Islamic or Hindus? Since they don't believe in Jesus as God, are they immoral for having sex outside a Christian marriage?
yes, but they are typically smart enough to know it without the law of Moses.
So any sex outside of a Christian marriage is immoral to you.
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Was the US government evil when they dropped bombs on Hiroshima?
No, I do not think so.
I should have asked if it was immoral instead of evil...
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It's not like the slavery in the Bible we have discussed though. You mentioned that a theif could be sold, unless he could pay back double what he stole, should we allow rich people to be able to murder if human life becomes equated in dollars?

No.
What should happen to someone who murders?


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How was slavery in America any less moral than the slavery in the Bible in your veiw?
it was illegal to kidnap people and make them slaves.
these are not people that were threatening to America, were near America.[
Anytime someone was kidnapped, harmed, raped, taken from family, branded, etc it was immoral.
And you are quite sure none of these things happened at the hands of Israeli slave owners, so why were there laws against these things?


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arnoldo mentioned that slavery during Biblical times was somewhat due to the agriculture economy of the time, so was the slavery in America.

sugarhitman [lol] preached "eveybody has to serve something", but I see he gets all bent out of shape over the African slaves that served his Christian brethern slave owners in America and considers it immoral.

You mentioned people who stole or who were conquered being made to become slaves, how is that any different then the African tribes who sold other Africans they conquered or who were thieves into slaves for the agriculture economy of America?
because they were not at war, they were kidnapped. (Exo 21:16) "Whoever kidnaps someone and sells him, or is caught still holding him, must surely be put to death.

This was frowned upon in the OT and the NT.

(1 Tim 1:10) sexually immoral people, practicing homosexuals, kidnappers, liars, perjurers - in fact, for any who live contrary to sound teaching.
A majority of the slaves were from other African tribes that had been captured during war. Americans rarely if ever went to Africa and kidnapped Africans.
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Old 01-12-2009, 01:58 PM   #926
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Foreign to whom? the people of Israel were Canaanites to begin with, had always lived in slave holding societies, and never existed without being surrounded by, and being involved in institutionalized slavery, and the buying and selling of slaves, they were well familiar with the practice of it in all of its aspects. Thus it is disingenuous to claim it as "foreign" to the Israelite peoples, even the Bible reveals that they DID engage in the practices of the surrounding nations,-including slavery, and it would have been conducted just as they knew it and experienced it, harshly, not according to your Utopian pie-in-the-sky dreamland version. The evidence supports that slavery under Israelite domination would not significantly differ from the slavery that was being practiced by their contemporary neighbors.
It may not have. the concept of slavery in your mind is different (and thereby foreign) from what slavery meant in the ANE.
It is the Bible that provides this word picture;
Quote:
"And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod,
and he die under his hand;
he shall be surely punished.
Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two,
he shall not be punished:
for he [is] his money."
When that god could just as well have said;

"As I have set you free, so do ye also unto one another,
Thou shalt not practice slavery, it is an abomination
unto YHWH your Elohim,
there shalt be no slaves found amonst you;
For I, YHWH your Elohim, hateth slavery.
Whoso amongst My people, shalt take a slave,
even that soul shalt surely die,
Thou shalt surely put him to death;
So shalt thou put away this evil in Israel;
Therefore you are free, I am YHWH"

The former is -not- worthy.
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Old 01-12-2009, 02:06 PM   #927
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Originally Posted by sschlicter
Why do you believe I exist?
Why do you believe that the God of the Bible exists? If you answer my question, I will answer your question.

Asking questions is easy. Answering questions is much more difficult, which would easily be proven if you answered my question. You want me to answer your question, but you do not want to answer my question. That is not fair.
I actually answered your question with mine had you taken one minute to think about it. you 'beleive' I exist yet you cannot prove it. Once you decided that I most likely existed, then you acted on that faith by firing 1000 questions at me. These are the elements of faith. knowledge, beleif, and commitment. Not for only theists. atheists also live by faith. It is the object of faith that is different.

I beleive in God first because the existence of a God is self evident. I see design and beauty in nature and in relationships. It is beyond belief (IMO) that A) life or matter can exist on it's own or create itself and B) that evolution (non-theistic) can provide us with some of the life that exists. Do you know the eye of an Octopus is very similar to a human eye? How could random evolutionary mutations in such different environments end up with the same design. I also consider the skunk a very funny animal. It is nearly inconceivable to me that a skunk could have evolved such a humorous defense without help. How could that have started? Did the gland evolve separately from the firing mechanism? If so, what reward existed separately from the firing mechanism to continue it's progress. Why did the firing mechanism even evolve with or without the gland. It is (IMO) willful ignorance to deny the creators role in creation.

The God of the Bible is a separate question.

If we are trading question for question than I want you to answer me why you beleive that life can start without the existence of God without invoking your faith.
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Old 01-12-2009, 02:08 PM   #928
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from wiki, not sure how reliable this is:

Also, like many other Persian Kings, [Darius] was strictly against slavery: for example, all the workers at Persepolis and other construction projects he commissioned were paid, which was revolutionary at the time. His human rights policies were also common to his ancestors and future Persian kings, continuing the legacy of the Cyrus Cylinder.

re Cyrus:

The cylinder is seen as an example of Cyrus seeking the loyalty of his new Babylonian subjects by stressing his legitimacy as king, and showing his respect for the religious and political traditions of Babylonia. It has been regarded for over a century as an instrument of ancient Mesopotamian propaganda. In the early 1970s, the Shah of Iran adopted it as a symbol of his reign and celebrating 2,500 years of Iranian monarchy, asserting that it was "the first human rights charter in history", an interpretation which is also advocated by some, although criticized by others as "anachronistic and erroneous".
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Old 01-12-2009, 02:11 PM   #929
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It may not have. the concept of slavery in your mind is different (and thereby foreign) from what slavery meant in the ANE.
It is the Bible that provides this word picture;
Quote:
"And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod,
and he die under his hand;
he shall be surely punished.
Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two,
he shall not be punished:
for he [is] his money."
When that god could just as well have said;

"As I have set you free, so do ye also unto one another,
Thou shalt not practice slavery, it is an abomination
unto YHWH your Elohim,
there shalt be no slaves found amonst you;
For I, YHWH your Elohim, hateth slavery.
Whoso amongst My people, shalt take a slave,
even that soul shalt surely die,
Thou shalt surely put him to death;
So shalt thou put away this evil in Israel;
Therefore you are free, I am YHWH"

The former is -not- worthy.
You said that the God that might exist was possibly just? How could he be just and not allow those who commit crimes to lose their freedom.

Do you beleive we should let all the criminals out of jail in the name of Sheshbazar?
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Old 01-12-2009, 02:18 PM   #930
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from wiki, not sure how reliable this is:

Also, like many other Persian Kings, [Darius] was strictly against slavery: for example, all the workers at Persepolis and other construction projects he commissioned were paid, which was revolutionary at the time. His human rights policies were also common to his ancestors and future Persian kings, continuing the legacy of the Cyrus Cylinder.

re Cyrus:

The cylinder is seen as an example of Cyrus seeking the loyalty of his new Babylonian subjects by stressing his legitimacy as king, and showing his respect for the religious and political traditions of Babylonia. It has been regarded for over a century as an instrument of ancient Mesopotamian propaganda. In the early 1970s, the Shah of Iran adopted it as a symbol of his reign and celebrating 2,500 years of Iranian monarchy, asserting that it was "the first human rights charter in history", an interpretation which is also advocated by some, although criticized by others as "anachronistic and erroneous".
Possible, Darius was a slave and may have had some aversion to it. I do not beleive it became policy though

Xerxes marched against the rebels in the year after the death of Darius. He subdued them and laid Egypt under a much harder slavery than in the time of Darius, and he handed it over to Achaemenes, his own brother and Darius' son. While ruling Egypt, Achaemenes was later killed by a Libyan, Inaros son of Psammetic.
Herodotus, Histories 7.7
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