Enda80

I had in my mind the idea that at after they said "His blood be upon us and all our children!", a voice from Heaven had boomed out "So be it!", which would show that Yahweh agreed that this would come true (be careful what you wish for......). However, rereading the gospels, I could not find such as scene.

Anyway, this of interest because, even if the crowd (which could only have been what, a couple of dozen people?) said that riduclous phrase (something actually more out of a movie or play), it actually had no weight. After all, a parent has no authority to include a child in his guilt for an act. If a rioting crowd lynched a man, and everyone in the crowd said "We did it! You don't like it, you can eat me and my grandkids!" no court would take the crowd up on the offer. (I am presuming that the grandchildren of the hypothetical mob are not included in the lynching.)

P.S. Yes, I now that since the Passover Privilege is just something to advance the plot, the whole scene did not happen as narrated.

Toto

Matt 27:24 When Pilate saw that he was getting nowhere, but that instead an uproar was starting, he took water and washed his hands in front of the crowd. “I am innocent of this man's blood,� he said. “It is your responsibility!�

25 All the people answered, “Let his blood be on us and on our children!�

There was no voice from Heaven that said "so be it".

Vivisector

It's a literary device. The reader would know of the calamities that befell the Jews during the first war. The author of Matthew is telling the reader why it happened: because of the culpability of the Jerusalem Jews in Jesus's crucifixion. Maybe the very people who allegedly clamored for his death didn't suffer through the war, but their children did. Why visit the sins of the parents upon their children? Because they asked for it!