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Old 03-22-2004, 07:08 AM   #141
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jtb: And are you seriously arguing that the Hebrews wouldn't otherwise have known that a nearby nation consisted largely of sandy desert, or that they wrote on papyrus? Just how ignorant do you think they were?

Now you are contradicting yourself, first you say they are backward and ignorant now you say they were sophisticated world travelers. Which one is it? Anyway I didnt say they didnt know that Egypt didnt have a desert, I am saying that they would not have been WELL acquainted with the desert unless they had actually traveled there. Also they would not have known Egyptian geography so well unless they had actually been there. And all the evidence points to the writer of Deuteronomy being very familar with it.
Egypt was the country next door. It was also the equivalent of a superpower: culturally and militarily dominant. What you're suggesting is equivalent to saying that no Mexican should know that there are skyscrapers in New York, unless he's been there. Or he shouldn't know that many Americans eat burgers and drink Coke.
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jtb: More excuses for the worship of an evil deity. You still haven't explained why you have a problem with some evil (even to the extent of denying the Bible), but not this.

What is evil? How did you decide He was evil? So you believe that objective evil exists? Where did it come from? If you don't believe that evil exists then you destroy your own argument.
You are merely proving my point. You are unable to admit that you comprehend any basis for moral values other than "my God did this, so it must be OK".

...Even though you contradict yourself with your non-Biblical views on rape and human sacrifice. No matter how much you want to believe that the Bible is compatible with your views, you simply cannot pretend that your views came FROM the Bible.
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By having these women convert and become the wives of the priests they were like living memorials of what happened and an offering to God.
They would have desecrated the temple and either fled or murdered the priests at the earliest available opportunity. Once again, you demonstrate that you cannot understand the mindset of women whose relatives have been butchered.

How many Jewish women married Nazi death-camp guards?
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Since not everything mentioned in Numbers 31 was sacrificed see verses 50-54 where the gold is mentioned and used as a memorial for the people to remember it plainly did NOT always mean sacrifice (in the sense of destroy or burn up).
The Bible is clear: the PEOPLE are a part of the SACRIFICE (along with the animals). The MONEY is discussed afterwards: money is not mentioned as part of the "heave offering".

Yet again, you abandon the Bible, because you don't like what it says. But if the Bible is the basis of your morality, it should not be possible for you to dislike what it says, WHATEVER it actually says.
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Old 03-22-2004, 09:44 PM   #142
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Originally posted by Doctor X

Ed: I looked at their website and did a search and there was no article that stated that the ancient hebrews engaged in human sacrifice.

dx: Go to the section on the Journal of Biblical Literature, then go to Spring 2003, and you will be able to get a PDF of Collins' article. The other texts referenced also discuss the matter.

In fact, let me see if I can make this easy:

JBL-Spring-2003


I did, and he makes the same mistake of basing most of his argument on the fatally flawed Documentary Hypothesis. He uses it as an excuse to take verses out of context. See above for some of the problems with it.


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Ed: My statement about these prior verses' relationship to the later verses stands unrefuted.

dx: You may think that, I could not possibly comment.
I will take that as an "unable to refute".


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Ed: Similar events sometimes happened to different patriarchs at different times, but that happens. I have had it happen to myself and others. If that is what you are referring to as doublets. And there are no contradictions. Oftentimes an author will use a different style when they are dealing with a different subject or perspective.

dx: Is it Aaron or Moses?
Is what?

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dx: Consider reviewing Friedman's works--particularly the new The Bible with Sources Revealed--for an explanation of doublets.
I know what they are and they do not prove anything.


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Ed: Fraid so, it shows that the problem is probably anti-semitism on Friedman's part.

dx: Charging a scholar . . . a celebrated and respected JEWISH scholar . . . with anti-semitism demonstrates the level that this individual must sink to maintain his delusions. Is that it? Does it come to that? That the individual has no sense of decency?

No gentleman would make such an ignorant and cowardly baseless charge. Since I only deal with gentleman, I feel no further need to recognize the blatherings of this individual further.

Ed: I am just trying to show you how ridiculous long distance psychoanalysis can be, as he tried to do with Jeremiah. But also, many secular jews look down on and ridicule their more religious brethren, while it may not be technically antisemitism it is close, given that it could be argued that a secular jew is not really a jew.

And this condescension is what Friedman is doing to Jeremiah.


dx: No, he is not. That is not Friedman discussing Jeremiah it is another, apparently, self-hating Jew--Jonathan Levenson. One should at least get the scholars he wishes to libel straight.

These charges are ridiculous argumentum ad hominem. If they continue I will recognize that there the person making them cannot debate the issues honestly.

--J.D.
No, the charges are true, because the same thing occurs among Gentiles and Jews on this site everyday!
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Old 03-23-2004, 07:22 AM   #143
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I did, and he makes the same mistake of basing most of his argument on the fatally flawed Documentary Hypothesis. He uses it as an excuse to take verses out of context. See above for some of the problems with it.
You are speaking Eddian again.

Translations follow:

"fatally flawed": I don't like it.
"take verses out of context": take verses in context.
"See above": imagine there's another post somewhere in which I present a cogent argument.
"problems with it": I don't like it.

Ed, it's no good pretending there are "problems" with the DH when you don't present any! You expect us to just take your word for it?

So far, all you've done is to suggest that the Hebrews "shouldn't have known" that Egypt was in a desert, and that they "shouldn't have known" about suzerainty treaties that had been used in the past and were still being used at the time (as usual, I suggest you read the thread: why do you keep forgetting to do that?)
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Old 03-23-2004, 08:22 PM   #144
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Originally posted by greyline
To get back to the heart-hardening for a moment...

re. the phrase "Pharaoh's heart was hardened", which has been interpreted in two ways:

(1) Pharaoh's heart hardened

and

(2) Pharaoh's heart was hardened [by God]

I just wanted to find out if the reason why Ed and Brighid disagreed was simply the tense used? If that's the case, is it possible to figure out from the original text the correct translation? It certainly seems to me that if the intention of the author was that Pharaoh hardened his own heart, the wording used would have been (1), not (2).

No, it is not the tense, it is the words themselves. Pharoah initiated the whole hardening process as shown in Exodus 7:13(NASB) and several times following that. Then God punishes him by causing that decision to become permanent, ie when God hardens his heart. For more details see my post to Brighid above.
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Old 03-23-2004, 08:31 PM   #145
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Originally posted by greyline

Ed: Unbelief is a moral issue because all humans know that the true God exists and deserves their worship so to deny it is being dishonest.


gl: How can Pygmies in Africa know the true God exists? (forgive my non-PC example, but it's the first thing I could think of - you know what I mean.)


Thru nature and their own consciences.


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gl: I do like the "deserves their worship" bit - it's the point of this thread, I guess, in which some are pointing out why they believe he's not worthy of worship. Ed, would you be able to give me a reason why he deserves worship?
Because everything good in your life comes from him including your life itself.


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Ed: Though of course years of denying Him can push this knowledge into the subconscious so that they can actually convince themselves that they do not believe he exists.

gl: Some of "them" probably just read a few history books and came to the conclusion quite rationally.
After they have already pushed their knowledge that he does exist deep into their subconscious.
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Old 03-23-2004, 08:41 PM   #146
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Originally posted by Doctor X
I looked through a few translations, KJV, RSV, and even the new one from Friedman's The Bible with Sources Revealed. In all of there are passages where it is YHWH doing the hardening:

Exod 9:12 KJV And the LORD hardened the heart of Pharaoh, and he hearkened not unto them; as the LORD had spoken unto Moses.

RSV But the LORD hardened the heart of Pharaoh, and he did not listen to them; as the LORD had spoken to Moses.

Friedman And YHWH strengthened Pharoah's heart, and he did not listen to them--as YHWH had spoken to Moses.



Actually in this case Friedman's translation is pretty accurate. God "strengthened" Pharoah's heart. This implies that his heart was already strong against the hebrews. But you left out all the other verses where Pharoah hardens his own heart: Ex. 7:13 NASB, Ex. 8:15, 19, 32; Ex.9:7,34,35; and Ex. 13:15.


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dx: This is the P source. Here is from the E source:

Exod 10:1-2 KJV And the LORD said unto Moses, Go in unto Pharaoh: for I have hardened his heart, and the heart of his servants, that I might shew these my signs before him: And that thou mayest tell in the ears of thy son, and of thy son's son, what things I have wrought in Egypt, and my signs which I have done among them; that ye may know how that I [am] the LORD.

RSV Then the LORD said to Moses, "Go in to Pharaoh; for I have hardened his heart and the heart of his servants, that I may show these signs of mine among them, and that you may tell in the hearing of your son and of your son's son how I have made sport of the Egyptians and what signs I have done among them; that you may know that I am the LORD."

Friedman: And YHWH aid to Moses, "Come to Pharoah, because I have made his heart and his servants' heart heavy for the purpose of my setting these signs of mine among them and for the purpose that you will tell in the ears of your son an dyour son's son about how I abused Egypt and about my signs that I set among them, and you will know that I am YHWH."

Seems rather clear "who" is hardening "whose" heart and why. This is a mythical opportunity to show power.

--J.D.
I never denied that God later hardened his heart, only that Pharoah initiated it. See my post to greyline above and Brighid earlier in this thread.
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Old 03-23-2004, 08:53 PM   #147
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless

Ed: No, because only God has the right to enforce capital punishment for sin, humans do not except for the short period during the acquistion by the hebrew theocracy of the promised land.

jtb: Apologetic fiction. This isn't in the Bible.

Fraid not. Read John 8:3-11.
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Old 03-23-2004, 08:56 PM   #148
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by greyline
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I think maybe my post wasn't clear although it may not necessarily change your answer - I was referring specifically to Ex 7:13 and the first five plagues, where Ed is saying Pharoah hardened his own heart. I understand Ed conceeds that the last few times (ie. 9:12 above) it was God who hardened Pharoah's heart.

So I was wondering if Ed might be interpreting those early "his heart was hardened" verses as "his heart hardened", in which case I can see why he could say it was Pharoah's doing, not God's, but only because he misunderstood the tense.

So my question is this - is Ed misunderstanding the tense or are bible translators misunderstanding the tense? (Obviously I'm only really asking for an answer to the second part of the question, which will provide an answer the first part anyway.) Does the original Hebrew specifically say "was hardened" (which implies an external agent) or does it say "hardened" (which could imply either)? Or is it not possible to say on a purely grammatical level? [/B]
No, see my post to you above.
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Old 03-24-2004, 03:16 AM   #149
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Ed: No, because only God has the right to enforce capital punishment for sin, humans do not except for the short period during the acquistion by the hebrew theocracy of the promised land.

jtb: Apologetic fiction. This isn't in the Bible.

Fraid not. Read John 8:3-11.
I have. It's the incident with the adulteress: "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her".

...Which says nothing at all about humans having the right to enforce capital punishment for sin during the acquistion by the hebrew theocracy of the promised land.

Jesus was merely pointing out that they were no better than she was. The rest is apologetic fiction, just as I said.
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Old 03-24-2004, 09:41 PM   #150
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless

Deu 18:9 When thou art come into the land which the LORD thy God giveth thee, thou shalt not learn to do after the abominations of those nations.
Deu 18:10 There shall not be found among you [any one] that maketh his son or his daughter to pass through the fire, [or] that useth divination, [or] an observer of times, or an enchanter, or a witch,

jtb:These verses say that CHILD SACRIFICE BY FIRE is wrong.

There is NO Biblical verse which claims that HUMAN SACRIFICE IN GENERAL is wrong.

Ed: Fraid so, given that fire is the only way the ancient hebrews performed sacrifices.

jtb: What part of the Biblical phrase "his son or his daughter" do you not understand?

What part of my own phrase "CHILD SACRIFICE" do you not understand?


A son or daughter can be either a child or an adult, so both are ruled out.

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jtb: What part of "There is NO Biblical verse which claims that HUMAN SACRIFICE IN GENERAL is wrong" do you not understand?

What part of your "Fraid so" is true? Answer: it isn't.
While there is no explicit verse stating that "human sacrifice in general is wrong", it is plainly implied by the above verse and Deut. 12:31 where even what the pagans are doing to their sons and daughters are condemned. Plus the sixth commandment, "You shall not murder." Also there is no laws dealing with humans in the sacrificial laws or stating that humans are clean animals that can be sacrificed.

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Ed: No, in war time God commanded herem, which was the killing of the people in situ. Anytime captives were taken they were only taken as slaves or wives.

jtb: Wrong answer, already disproved. Read Numbers 31.

Or just re-read this thread.
No the herem does not have any of the characteristics of hebrew sacrifices.

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Ed: Nope, see above and also my posts to Dr X. Actually YOU are the one taking verses out of context.

jtb: This is clearly not true.

jtb: No, it clearly is true.

Not once have you ever provided an example.
Both of you ignore the passages in the torah where there is redemption for the human first born.

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jtb: You are deliberately and deceitfully refusing to apply this "overarching justification" to other examples such as the Holocaust or serial killers. And you are deliberately and deceitfully seeking to deflect attention from the STATED reason, because you know that the STATED reason is indefensible.

Ed: No see above how humans do not have the right to use capital punishment for sin. No the stated reason of destruction to obtain the land promised to the chosen people of the King of the Universe is also justified.

jtb: That, also, is not the STATED reason for the massacre of the Amalekites.

The STATED reason is "vengeance" for a 400-year-old incident not perpetrated by any of those on whom this "vengeance" fell.
We were not talking about the Amalekites, we were talking about the Canaanites and the herem. I have dealt with the Amalekites elsewhere.

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jtb: Baloney. Read Numbers 31, in which 32 virgins are ritually sacrificed.

Ed: No, when humans were "given to the Lord" they were either made servants in the Temple or for women they became the wives for the priests. See I Samuel 1 about how Samuel was given to the Lord. That is what the phrase meant.

jtb: Correction: that is what you prefer to believe the phrase meant. This interpretation is highly implausible, given that the virgins share the same fate as the rest of the stuff: they become a "heave offering".

Ed: No, from the example in Samuel we see how the ancient hebrews understood the phrase. Not even all the non-human heave offering was sacrificed, some was used as food for the priests. So the term heave offering can also plainly be understood symbolically.

jtb: The phrase "heave offering" was NOT USED in Samuel. So you have no case.

"Food for the priests": sorry to shatter your illusions, Ed, but God doesn't actually come down and take the stuff that the priests pretend to offer him. If food is offered, the priests eat whatever's edible when they've finished: if it's money, the priests spend it.
One thing I forgot to mention is that Moses specifically said they are to be kept alive in verse 18. So if they killed them then they would have broken Moses explicit command, also as stated above they would have broken the Sixth Commandment. And eating and spending are not equivalent to destroying by burning so it is obvious that heave offering can be understood symbolically. See below where money is called a heave offering and plainly not destroyed or burnt:

Num 18:26 Thus speak unto the Levites, and say unto them, When ye take of the children of Israel the tithes which I have given you from them for your inheritance, then ye shall offer up an heave offering of it for the LORD, [even] a tenth [part] of the tithe.
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