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Old 01-12-2008, 08:24 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by hatsoff View Post
So, without changing word order or adding punctuation (except in the critical spot), and noting all additional words in brackets, I came up with this as a literal translation:
evangelium Iohannis manifestatum est ecclesiis a Iohanne adhuc in corpore constituto, sicut Papias nomine Hierapolitanus episcopus, discipulus Iohannis et carus, in exotericis suis, id est in extremis quinque libris retulit; descripsit vero evangelium dictante Iohanne recte verum Marcion hereticus, cum ab eo fuisset inprobatus eo quod contraria sentiebat, proiectus est a Iohanne. hic vero scripta vel epistulas ad eum pertulerat a fratribus missas, qui in Ponto erant

[The] Gospel John manifested in [the] church by John while still fleshly constituted, as Papias named Hierapolitanus' bishop, [the] disciple John and [the] dear, as explained [for the] people, [in the] last five books [thereto] refered; [he] described indeed [the] Gospel dictated [by] John rightly. Truly Marcion [the] heretic, when after [time] advanced was [facing] disapproval for his contrary feelings, projected [he] was by John. Who indeed writings or epistles to him pertulerat* by brothers [of holy] mass, which at Ponto were
*- I have no idea what this word might mean.
<hard-sell>QuickLatin is your friend...</hard-sell> ='carried'.

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Is punctuation similar between English and ancient Latin?
There is no certainty of punctuation (or word division) in antique Latin texts. The Romans did experiment with punctuation but had abandoned it by this period under Greek influence.

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Should we expect a period between "recte" and "verum"? If so, then why is it missing? If not, how does that affect translation?
Yes we should expect one, given that Marcion hereticus is nominative and so indicates that some kind of new clause or sentence is starting up (Papias being the previous nominative).

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Roger Pearse
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Old 01-17-2008, 04:51 AM   #12
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Default chronology of the anti-Marcionite prologues 4th century

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Originally Posted by hatsoff View Post
Hi, all.

Thanks to Roger Pearse's wonderful efforts to bring scholarly materials into the hands of the general public, we now have translations of the anti-Marcionite prologues to Mark, Luke and John. In particular, I'd like to look at the latter of the three, the prologue to the Fourth Gospel.

Hi hatsoff,

Are you aware of the chronology estimate for
the anti-Marcionite prologues ? They are generally
thought to have been written in the fourth CE.

They are thus not generally associated with issues
of "early christianity" conjectured in earlier centuries.

Best wishes,


Pete Brown
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Old 01-17-2008, 05:49 AM   #13
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From what I can tell, the Bodmer Papyri do not contain the anti-Marcionite prologues. The prologues are in Latin, and these papyri are in Greek and Coptic. Mr. Wordsworth mentioned the two in the same article, using the claims in the prologue to link the papyrus to ancient times.
That is correct. The prologues are not attested that early. Their frequent dating to century II is based on internal considerations and parallels to other literature from century II.

For my money, they are probably all late except possibly that of Luke, which may be earlier than the rest, but I am by no means certain of that.

Ben.
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Old 01-17-2008, 06:12 AM   #14
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Originally Posted by hatsoff
You can see that Wordsworth makes a very strange claim: According to him, the prologue tells us Marcion wrote down the autograph of GJohn, in contrast to Roger's translation which tells us it was rather Papias.

I wonder, then, did Wordsworth make a mistake in his interpretation, or did Roger?
I would not say it is an outright mistake to say it is Marcion, but it is quite strained, I think.

As you implied, the longer recension is clear that it is Papias, using the relative pronoun qui, whose antecedent has to be Papias.

The shorter recension is most naturally read, IMVHO, as also referring to Papias:
Descripsit vero evangelium dictante Iohanne recte. verum Marcion hereticus, cum ab eo fuisset inprobatus eo quod contraria sentiebat, abiectus est a Iohanne.

He [Papias] in fact wrote down this gospel while John dictated. But Marcion the heretic, when he had been disapproved by him because he supposed contrary things, was thrown out by John.
But this is what I think is leading to the idea that Marcion was the secretary instead of Papias:
Descripsit vero evangelium dictante Iohanne recte verum Marcion hereticus. cum ab eo fuisset inprobatus eo quod contraria sentiebat, abiectus est a Iohanne.

Marcion the heretic in fact wrote down this gospel while John in fact dictated. When he [Marcion] had been disapproved by him because he supposed contrary things, he was thrown out by John.
This is, I believe, acceptable grammatically, since it is permissible to suspend the subject for effect, but I completely agree with Roger that the word order would lead us more naturally to think that Papias is still being referred to and that everything to do with Marcion starts with verum.

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Or, are they working from two or more variant mss.?
I did not put all the variants in the text on my web page, but I just checked my photocopy (of an old microfiche record of) Regul and do not see any other variants that would affect this discussion.

Also, Roger is right to prefer in fact or such to truly as a translation of verum. My translation was probably a bit to literalistic. (My translations often are.) I note that in truth is an option listed in the dictionaries for this adverb (verum being cognate with veritas, truth), but other options are probably preferable.

Ben.
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