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01-31-2010, 01:18 AM | #1 |
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Romans 3
'But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify.'
In his translation in Romans for everyone, NT Wright puts the testification of the Law and the Prophets in the past tense. Is it in the past tense in the Greek? |
01-31-2010, 07:13 AM | #2 | |
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IIUC it is a present participle but it is sometimes appropriate to translate the Greek present participle as an English imperfect. IE 'to which the Law and the Prophets were testifying' is IMHO a possible translation. Andrew Criddle |
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01-31-2010, 09:05 AM | #3 | |
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For Paul his freedom from the law to which slavery of sin was attached is replaced by his intimate knowledge of Truth that is maintained by the beauty of that truth and so Paul will be censored by the absense of beauty in his life. . . who so is a slave to beauty in the name of truth. This is a very easy concept if you equate Truth with Life an and Beauty with Love . . . which is true at all levels but here for Paul is the agape kind such as it is presented in John 21:17 (also in Greek I venture to say). |
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01-31-2010, 09:58 AM | #4 | ||
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01-31-2010, 11:40 AM | #5 | |
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01-31-2010, 11:38 PM | #6 | |
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02-01-2010, 10:57 AM | #7 | |
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Andrew Criddle |
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02-01-2010, 12:39 PM | #8 |
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Or perhaps Wright puts it in the past tense, to leave a space for something or somebody else to testify now.
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02-02-2010, 11:20 AM | #9 | ||
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KJV has "being witnessed." The sense seems to be that the OT testifies of Christ who is the righteousness of God and who is the means to gain righteousness which the law could not do. That testimony began in the past and continues into the present (i.e., nothing changes what the OT has always told us). |
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