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Old 09-22-2007, 04:22 AM   #81
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The point is not what Tacitus strictly speaking claims, nor what actually happened but how the passage could be interpreted. A Christian apologist in the 3rd century might well be concerned that reminding people of the Tacitus passage would raise the suspicion that the Christians burned Rome whether or not this is what a close reading of Tacitus would support.
I was partly complaining about the unhelpful retrojection of "terrorism".

The apologist has the ability to cite all that is necessary. It's not that ordinary people usually read the source texts, just the christian works, going by the wealth of christian citations as against the paucity of other citations. It seems more likely that when christian fathers referred to citations it was not from the original texts but through citation collections. Josephus on John the Baptist and some form of the James passage were available to Origen, but nothing else. Arguing that the original text might be misconstrued by readers doesn't seem to be dealing with christian use of sources: they knew how to quote and set a quotation.

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(In an old thread I suggested that Tacitus is implying (as part of his hostility to Nero) that he blamed Christians for starting the fire to attempt to divert suspicion from himself. Tacitus avoids explicitly saying so because his sources had Christians killed as members of a corrupt cult the toleration of which had caused the Fire of Rome as a sign of the Gods' anger.)

If you are interpreting the passage in Tacitus as not really implying that Christians were accused of the Fire of Rome its derivation from Sulpicius Severus (who clearly claims this) becomes even more difficult.
Our passage is more elaborate than that of Sulpicius, who simply paints the issue as trumped up charges. A 15.44 makes it clear that everyone knew that they were trumped up charges and that it was sufficient to be christian. I guess Sulpicius wasn't up to the subtlety.


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Old 09-22-2007, 06:18 AM   #82
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IMHO the story is not typical as a Martyr story.

There is no implication of the Christians dying for refusal to renounce their faith. The absence of any idea of death as witness to faith makes this in fact a rather unusual story.
Merely dying for their faith. They fessed up to being christians according to the account and they were crucified, torn to pieces, or crisp fried. (You know, all those gory details Tacitus brims with, right?)
If one goes back up the thread we were originally discussing the claim that the Sulpicius Severus account (which you hold to be original) is a typical Martyr story. SS has no account of anyone confessing to anything.

On the point of the lurid details. Christian Martyr stories do relish lurid details but not usually for their own sake, they illustrate the continuing resistance of the martyr under torture. There is nothing of this here
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Like he deliberately avoids mentioning Chinese. Oh, yeah, right. There were basically no Chinese in the Mediterranean. Because he doesn't talk about something doesn't imply that there was avoidance, Andrew. You're being inventive.
Dio Cassius has a narrative extending well into the 3rd century CE. IMO the absence of any mention of Christians in the latter part of his narrative (assuming it is not a result of fragmentary survival of his text) does seem to indicate a deliberate decision.
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It is at very least higher than one would expect on the basis of 'reverse engineering' from the passage in Sulpicius Severus.
This response doesn't seem to contain evidence of any analytical thought.

You will be happy to say that (1) Tacitus deliberately sabotaged his own literary efforts to condemn Nero by suggestion when he changed the subject onto a tacky description of a persecution of naughty christians written in uncharacteristic tones and that (2) the contents of the passage are not more suited to Sulpicius Severus, right?


spin
My point is that if the passage in SS is the original then the interpolator in Tacitus went to much much more effort to write like Tacitus than was necessary in order to change the SS passage into something Tacitus might arguably have said.

The passage in Sulpicius reads like something Sulpicius might say, the passage in Tacitus reads (at least at first sight) like something Tacitus might say. The problem is in having a Christian copyist rewrite the Sulpicius passage to correspond to the Tacitaean passage he believed/imagined/pretended might be the source for Sulpicius and end up with what we now have in Tacitus.

The other way in which SS has our text of Tacitus before him and rewrites it to produce our text of SS does not have these problems.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 09-22-2007, 06:27 AM   #83
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That didn't take so long.

http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Atrium/3678/Nero.htm

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.................................................. ....................
Lactantius [260-330 CE] As to the Christian persecutions after Domitian, Lactantius is an authoritative source. He was not only favoured by Diocletian but a learned Christian historian, but, also the tutor to Constantine’s son Crispus. He was a contemporary of Eusebius of Caesarea and a favourite of Constantine’s court. In the beginning of the 4th century [313], he wrote about the past persecutions, but no Nero’s fire:
Two, of many.
Lactantius does not link the persecution with the fire but he certainly regards Nero as a persecutor

From On The Deaths of the Persecutors


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His apostles were at that time eleven in number, to whom were added Matthias, in the room of the traitor Judas, and afterwards Paul. Then were they dispersed throughout all the earth to preach the Gospel, as the Lord their Master had commanded them; and during twenty-five years, and until the beginning of the reign of the Emperor Nero, they occupied themselves in laying the foundations of the Church in every province and city.And while Nero reigned, the Apostle Peter came to Rome, and, through the power of God committed unto him, wrought certain miracles, and, by turning many to the true religion, built up a faithful and stedfast temple unto the Lord. When Nero heard of those things, and observed that not only in Rome, but in every other place, a great multitude revolted daily from the worship of idols, and, condemning their old ways, went over to the new religion, he, an execrable and pernicious tyrant, sprung forward to raze the heavenly temple and destroy the true faith. He it was who first persecuted the servants of God; he crucified Peter, and slew Paul: nor did he escape with impunity; for God looked on the affliction of His people; and therefore the tyrant, bereaved of authority, and precipitated from the height of empire, suddenly disappeared, and even the burial-place of that noxious wild beast was nowhere to be seen. This has led some persons of extravagant imagination to suppose that, having been conveyed to a distant region, he is still reserved alive; and to him they apply the Sibylline verses concerning

The fugitive, who slew his own mother, being to come from the uttermostboundaries of the earth;

as if he who was the first should also be the last persecutor, and thus prove the forerunner of Antichrist! But we ought not to believe those who, affirming that the two prophets Enoch and Elias have been translated into some remote place that they might attend our Lord when He shall come to judgment, also fancy that Nero is to appear hereafter as the forerunner of the devil, when he shall come to lay waste the earth and overthrow mankind.
http://www.ucalgary.ca/~vandersp/Cou.../lactpers.html

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Old 09-22-2007, 08:01 AM   #84
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If one goes back up the thread we were originally discussing the claim that the Sulpicius Severus account (which you hold to be original) is a typical Martyr story. SS has no account of anyone confessing to anything.
Christians confessed their faith. It's not a strange addition to the Sulpicius story.

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On the point of the lurid details. Christian Martyr stories do relish lurid details but not usually for their own sake, they illustrate the continuing resistance of the martyr under torture. There is nothing of this here.
They are a sign of suffering that inaugurated the process of christian martyrdom. Sign of things to come... umm, weren't they?

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Dio Cassius has a narrative extending well into the 3rd century CE. IMO the absence of any mention of Christians in the latter part of his narrative (assuming it is not a result of fragmentary survival of his text) does seem to indicate a deliberate decision.
Wishful opinion, wouldn't you say?

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My point is that if the passage in SS is the original then the interpolator in Tacitus went to much much more effort to write like Tacitus than was necessary in order to change the SS passage into something Tacitus might arguably have said.
Tacitus was at least later considered to be the epitome of good Latin.

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The passage in Sulpicius reads like something Sulpicius might say, the passage in Tacitus reads (at least at first sight) like something Tacitus might say.
I agree with the first part. You can't be serious about the second. Far too many problems of information, style and narrative cohesion.

As I said, Tacitus was perceived as the Latin writer. I'm sure the scribe learnt something from him.

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The problem is in having a Christian copyist rewrite the Sulpicius passage to correspond to the Tacitaean passage he believed/imagined/pretended might be the source for Sulpicius and end up with what we now have in Tacitus.
Sulpicius was the source. Not strange. The scribe tarted up his source -- happened a lot, didn't it? -- to be inserted in Tacitus. No big deal.

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The other way in which SS has our text of Tacitus before him and rewrites it to produce our text of SS does not have these problems.
The other way is that Tacitus didn't know something he did know, the official position of Pontius Pilate. He injected a widespread religion into Rome at a time when only apologists see a real multitude. The writer seems to have thought that Nero's men would be able to recognize christians some how, tell them apart from Jews. He injected a nugget of christian witness and made the hated christians into figures deserving of sympathy. He wrote some terrible tasteless prose. He even screwed up his -- up to this point artisticly nasty -- attack on Nero. In short in this one paragraph your Tacitus made a complete and utter botch up of his efforts, just to render service to christians. Not compelling, Andrew, is it?


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Old 09-24-2007, 06:41 AM   #85
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I said that this line in Tacitus has Christians turning each other in.

The text says that the multitudo ingens (immense multitude) was convicted by the indicio eorum (the information of those [who had been first arrested]). So fit is the word indicium for informing on someone that the related verb indicare came to especially mean to inform against.
Especially?
At least one Latin dictionary (Cassell) says so:
Esp. (I) to inform against, give evidence about.
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I would have thought that the common meaning of the word tended towards "disclosure" of something not known, a secret.
That is correct. The interrogated Christians disclosed the identities or names of other Christians whose identities or names had until that point not been known to the interrogators.

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Some christians fessed up to being christians. Under interrogation they disclosed other christians.
Exactly.

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"Inform against" seems to be shaping the data.
:huh:

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Old 09-24-2007, 07:21 AM   #86
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The word etymologically means "to speak against" in + dico, formed from index, "the pointer", used as "an informer", "that which discloses, betrays, reveals". (Chambers Murray w/ citations)
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Old 09-24-2007, 07:55 AM   #87
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The word etymologically means "to speak against" in + dico, formed from index, "the pointer", used as "an informer", "that which discloses, betrays, reveals". (Chambers Murray w/ citations)
What I am puzzled about is how spin can practically define the word as informing against (he says that it involves Christians disclosing other Christians under interrogation) and yet say that informing against is shaping the data.

Perhaps he is reading something like intentionally or premeditatively into a translation such as inform against, but I do not see it that way at all. I can inform against my mates deliberately, or I can inform against my mates under heavy interrogation; either way, I would be called an informer.

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Old 09-24-2007, 08:13 AM   #88
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Especially?
At least one Latin dictionary (Cassell) says so:
Esp. (I) to inform against, give evidence about.
That is correct. The interrogated Christians disclosed the identities or names of other Christians whose identities or names had until that point not been known to the interrogators.

Exactly.

Quote:
"Inform against" seems to be shaping the data.
:huh:
It's a stylistic concern. "Inform against" contains a sense of betrayal of some trust. That is only one of the possible collocations of the word. As the generic meaning of the word OLD gives "disclosure, information, intelligence". Its second meaning is "disclosure of something intended to be secret; {esp., usu. leg.} information or evidence given against a person".

Was being christian "intended to be secret"? What would make you think that the text wants you to read it as "information against a person", rather than a "disclosure [of (obviously) previously unknown fact]"? I think your conclusions shape your interpretation.


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Old 09-24-2007, 08:47 AM   #89
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Was being christian "intended to be secret"? What would make you think that the text wants you to read it as "information against a person", rather than a "disclosure [of (obviously) previously unknown fact]"? I think your conclusions shape your interpretation.
Your concern is that the former assumes or requires that being a Christian was, itself, illegal without sufficient evidence, correct?

IOW, it is the difference between revealing a secret criminal activity and revealing a secret(?) religious association?
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Old 09-24-2007, 09:24 AM   #90
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Was being christian "intended to be secret"? What would make you think that the text wants you to read it as "information against a person", rather than a "disclosure [of (obviously) previously unknown fact]"? I think your conclusions shape your interpretation.
Your concern is that the former assumes or requires that being a Christian was, itself, illegal without sufficient evidence, correct?

IOW, it is the difference between revealing a secret criminal activity and revealing a secret(?) religious association?
Our concern is the attitude of the writer to the reported event. Ben C, by choosing a specific meaning of the word indicium with negative connotations, he wishes to exclude a christian writer. It's one thing to talk the talk of hatred of humanity, but to say that christians betrayed christians starts to give some difficulty for a christian having written the comment. To read betrayal into the passage would require some tangible sign, otherwise we should read the phrase as neutral. Not being deceitful was a burden to christians in real times of persecution.

If this were really the first persecution, then would saying who other christians were be seen as anything wrong? Ingenuousness is what got Dodos extinct.


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