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Old 01-26-2005, 12:09 PM   #41
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Jagella: Do you date the gospels to the first century? If so, why?

The argument between DtC and you would be resolved if the gospels were written in the 2nd century or later. 1st century Jews did not believe in Hell, but 2nd century Christians did.

HJ = historical Jesus.
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Old 01-26-2005, 12:16 PM   #42
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jagella
See the Bible passages in my earlier posts.
I've already explained them in their lingusitica and historical context. What rebuttal do you have to reading the references to Gehenna any other way than how ancient Jews used the term either literally or figuratively?
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“HJ�?
Historical Jesus. I'm asking if you are willing to concede that if Jesus existed, he could not have known or spoken of Christian hell.
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Old 01-26-2005, 02:44 PM   #43
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
They are also giving a modern English definition of the word, not an ancient Jewish or Greek one.
I do not remember seeing such a distinction made in the definition provided by Webster.

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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
You have provided no evidence for this. You have failed to identify anything in the NT which refers to a concept of eternal hell.
I sure did. I do not wish to repeat myself. If it did me no good the first time, then why should I expect you to get it now?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
The NT does not refer to such a concept. Feel free to offer a passage that you think does. I'll explain the context once again.
You mean you’ll brush aside the evidence once again.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
1. With the arguable exception of Paul, The NT was not written by Jews.
I’ve seen this claim before, but it’s far from established. In any event, my argument is that the writers of the New Testament wrote of a hell in which sinners were punished after their deaths—not that the New Testament was necessarily written by Jews.

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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
2. The NT was not written at the time of Jesus.
Of course it wasn’t. Much of it was written a few decades later but still in the first century.

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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
3. The NT says nothing about a concept of eternal hell.
If you insist!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
There were indeed Christian writers within the first few centuries who believed in a concept of eternal hell, but none of them were authors of the NT.
None of them except for the gospel writers. They clearly believed and wrote about a concept of eternal hell which they derived from the Jewish concept of Gehenna.

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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Who is Miriam Van Scott? What are her credentials as a scholar? What is the basis for her conclusions?
Does it really matter? You seem determined to believe what you’re saying, and I suppose nobody can change your mind.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Just because someone has written a book doesn't mean they are a credentialed scholar.
Hmmm. What might be your definition of a “credentialed scholar�? Allow me…

credentialed scholar – anybody who says my presuppositions are right

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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
We are accustomed to a more sophisticated level of debate here.
Finally we agree. I’m sure that most of the members here would expect something more sophisticated than insulting one’s opponent.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Can you actually make a linguistic or historical case for "Gehenna" meaning eternal hell in the NT or can you at least summarize the argument of a recognized scholar?
I can indeed do that, but I decline to do so for two reasons: One, I don’t have the time, and two, I don’t see it as productive in changing the minds of people who adamantly choose to believe something. I left fundamentalism behind when I stopped being a Christian.

Nevertheless, I’m thinking about starting a new thread on this subject. I was not aware that the belief in hell as an annihilation of sinners over that of eternal torment was so much a part of people’s beliefs. Even more, I was not aware that some atheists insisted so strongly that the writers of the New Testament never wrote of hell! That is a surprise for me.

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Old 01-26-2005, 03:11 PM   #44
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Sorry to say, but IMHO you're being a little unreasonable here, Jag. To reiterate:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
Do you date the gospels to the first century? If so, why?

The argument between DtC and you would be resolved if the gospels were written in the 2nd century or later. 1st century Jews did not believe in Hell, but 2nd century Christians did.
It's really about as black and white as that.
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Old 01-26-2005, 03:33 PM   #45
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jagella
I do not remember seeing such a distinction made in the definition provided by Webster.
Webster is a modern English doctionary. Do you expect it to reiterate that fact with every definition. The whole point of showing the etymology is to show what it used to mean which is not always the same as what it means now.
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I sure did. I do not wish to repeat myself. If it did me no good the first time, then why should I expect you to get it now?
You provided some examples from the NT which had been incorrectly translated as "hell." I explained to you what those passages referred to in their proper historical and linguistic context. I provided support for my explanations and even your own definitions included etymologies that supported my explanations. You have, as yet, not provoded any sort of argument or evidence as to why those passages should be read with a modern interpretation rather than an ancient one or why Gehenna should be read as anything other than the Valley of Hinnon. I understand that you were not aware of how Gehenna figured into Jewish eschatology and I'm also aware that on a surface level, those passages appear to be speaking of Christian hell. However, you have not offered any reason beyond your initial, surface level understanding of those passages to believe that the standard Jewish eschatological view of Gehenna at the time is not entirely sufficient to explain those passages with mutiplying entia.

IOW, what in those passages contradicts the Jewish eschatological belief that sinners would be cast into Gehenna for annhilation on the last day?
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You mean you’ll brush aside the evidence once again.
I'm happy to consider any evidence you want to provide. So far you haven't provided any.
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I’ve seen this claim before, but it’s far from established. In any event, my argument is that the writers of the New Testament wrote of a hell in which sinners were punished after their deaths—not that the New Testament was necessarily written by Jews.
Once again, show me anything in the NT that shows anything contradictory to the normal Jewish beliefs at the time that Gehenna was a place for physical annihilation.
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Of course it wasn’t. Much of it was written a few decades later but still in the first century.
That's debatable. Much of it was probably written in the 2nd century. In any case, the earliest canonical gospel was still written at least a generation after the crucifixion and the others even later, so my point stands that they were not written during the time of Jesus.
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If you insist!
I invite you to prove me wrong. Show me something in the Gospels which contradicts the standard 1st century view of Gehenna.
Quote:
None of them except for the gospel writers. They clearly believed and wrote about a concept of eternal hell which they derived from the Jewish concept of Gehenna.
You keep saying this but you don't support it with evidence. What do the gospels say that shows a "clear" belief in an eternal hell as opposed to the standard view of Gehenna as a place of annihilation?
Quote:
Does it really matter? You seem determined to believe what you’re saying, and I suppose nobody can change your mind.
Of course it matters. If you're going to cite a "scholar" then cite her credentials. You can't seriously just expect to google a book on Amazon and expect it to be accepted at face value. You could do the same thing with creationism. If you don't know her credentials at least summarize her argument rather than just pasting a bald conclusion.
Quote:
Hmmm. What might be your definition of a “credentialed scholar�? Allow me…

credentialed scholar – anybody who says my presuppositions are right
Credentialed scholar: Someone with at least a graduate level degree in a field relevant to the conversation. Preferably someone who has published something in a peer reviewed journal. I do not require that they agree with me. I've read and learned from a lot of scholars that I disagree with on larger issues because they can make good points on smaller issues (or vice versa). The credentials are enough to make me listen but it's the argument I'm really interested in. How did they arrive a their conclusions? That's what I want to know
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I can indeed do that, but I decline to do so for two reasons: One, I don’t have the time, and two, I don’t see it as productive in changing the minds of people who adamantly choose to believe something. I left fundamentalism behind when I stopped being a Christian.
I don't "believe" anything. I'm just trying to enlighten you as to what a few Bible passages meant in their cultural and linguistic context. Those are not issues of belief or opinion but known historical fact.
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Nevertheless, I’m thinking about starting a new thread on this subject. I was not aware that the belief in hell as an annihilation of sinners over that of eternal torment was so much a part of people’s beliefs.
It's not a part of my belief and I don't think anyone else has claimed to believe it either. Just because I say that ancient Jews believed it doesn't mean that I believe it.
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Even more, I was not aware that some atheists insisted so strongly that the writers of the New Testament never wrote of hell! That is a surprise for me.
You seem to think I have some sort of emotional investment in one interpretation over another. I don't. It wouldn't bother me if the NT spoke of hell. There's a lot in the Bible that I think is repellent. This is not an issue of any sort of a priori desire for me to believe one characterization of Jesus over another. I don't care. I'm just trying to be historically accurate.
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Old 01-26-2005, 03:33 PM   #46
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This is Jag's evidence:

Quote:
Luke 16:22-24 " The time came when the beggar died and the angels carried him to Abraham's side. The rich man also died and was buried. In hell where he was in torment, he looked up and saw Abraham far away, with Lazarus by his side. So he called to him Father Abraham, have pity on me and send Lazarus to dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue, because I am in agony in this fire"
Diogenes says that the bosom of Abraham was a temporary place, separated from the rest of Gehenna, for the good guys, but it sounds like at least the beginning of an idea of Hell as punishment.

This source (which I do not vouch for) says:

Quote:
from Dr. Henry Morris's The Defender's Study Bible:

16:22 Abraham's bosom. In the age before the cross and Christ's victory over sin and death, the spirits of Jewish believers were transported, not to heaven, but to a separate compartment in the great pit at the heart of the earth, there to rest in peace awaiting the coming of Christ "and the opening of the prison to them that are bound" (Isaiah 61:1). This company of faithful was apparently under the care of "Father Abraham" (Luke 16:24).

16:23. hell. "Hell" (Greek Hades, equivalent to the Hebrew sheol) is not the ultimate hell (Greek gehenna) referred to in Matthew 10:28, the same as the "lake of fire" (Revelation 20:15). Hades is another compartment in the pit at the earth's center, where the spirits of the unsaved dead are confined until the day of judgment. They were not set free when Christ freed the spirits of the faithful, but are still there.
However, an any case, you cannot show that Luke is first century, and you cannot show when this passage was written.
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Old 01-26-2005, 03:43 PM   #47
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Early Christian writers used the term hell to designate…the place of punishment of Satan and the other fallen angels and of all mortals who die unrepentant of serious sin. Microsoft® Encarta® Encyclopedia 2003. © 1993-2002 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.
Does Encarta identify who is meant by "early Christian writers"? They could very well intend the Church Fathers. If Gospel authors are meant, that is usually specified.

As far as I can tell, the Gospel evidence you've offered describes eternal fires but not eternal suffering. Unless we have some reason to assume the suffering was to be eternal, that isn't an obvious interpretation. Could you identify the passages that you believe describe the suffering as eternal?
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Old 01-26-2005, 03:48 PM   #48
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
This is Jag's evidence:



Diogenes says that the bosom of Abraham was a temporary place, separated from the rest of Gehenna, for the good guys, but it sounds like at least the beginning of an idea of Hell as punishment.
[NITPICK] It was a separate part of Sheol, not Gehenna. Sheol was the underworld (pretty much the same as Hades), Gehenna was the Valley.

Since the Greeks did have an idea of punishment in Hades, I think this parable shows a pretty late Hellenistic influence. It should be said, however, that Sheol was not eternal. So even the rich man in the Lazarus parable wasn't going to suffer forever.
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Old 01-26-2005, 04:37 PM   #49
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[edit -- never mind; I must be stoned or something. It's pretty clear that Isa 66:22-24 -- which Jesus spoke of -- represents the Jewish belief that the dead who are not brought to eternal life will forever be eaten and burned. Whether this is etarnal punishment or not is probably debateable.]
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Old 01-26-2005, 04:48 PM   #50
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"The worm that never dies" was sort of a poetic allusion to the infestations of maggots and worms crawling around in all those carcasses and piles of garbage. The Valley of Hinnon was not a pleasant place which is why it lent itself so easily to hellish connotations.
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