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05-11-2004, 08:26 PM | #1 | ||||
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Slavery and the Bible
I just thought I'd share some highlights of a debate I that had with a fundamentalist on another message board.
During a political discussion, he started quoting the Bible. To see how far he would go in his literal interpretations, I pointed out that the New Testament seems to authorize slavery: Quote:
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The next day, he came back after reading up on the subject, and pretty much said that slavery in Biblical times was not as bad as it was in the United States. Then he indicated that overall, passages about slavery had to do with everyone being expected by God to obey the law, and submit to people of authority. He pointed out other passages that instructed masters not to treat their slaves with cruelty. Here are some quotes from the most recent exchange: Quote:
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05-11-2004, 08:31 PM | #2 |
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Fundamentalist theists are a virus that needs to be destroyed.
Vinnie |
05-11-2004, 08:33 PM | #3 | |
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And somebody send this to Winace!!!
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05-11-2004, 08:40 PM | #4 |
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I've seen a lot of debates on slavery and the Bible, and I have been wondering a few things...
1. How did people end up in slavery in Biblical times compared or contrasted to, say, the Civil War period? 2. Is our abhorrence of slavery a learned response? Is it the product of the industrial revolution and/or other factors (more leisure time, free spending money, etc.)? It sometimes seems as if only some countries/societies can 'afford' to be anti-slavery (or pro-environment, pro-women's rights, anti-child labor, etc.) I ask this because it seems to be a relatively recent development that seems to have most hold in the richer countries in the world. 3. IS slavery in the Bible (Roman period, whatever) the same thing as slavery was in Colonial days? I have heard that Roman slave could buy their freedom, and many other 'arguments' that seem to try to seperate these two things. Is there any validity in that? |
05-11-2004, 10:18 PM | #5 | |
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05-11-2004, 11:27 PM | #6 |
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Right it was really different. Here is a great example of the Hebrew's view of slavery:
Ex 21:20 And if a man strikes his servant or his female servant with a rod so that he or she dies as a result of the blow, he will surely be punished. 21:21 However, if the injured servant survives one or two days, the owner will not be punished, for he has suffered the loss. I think that makes it quite clear how different it was. DK |
05-12-2004, 12:50 AM | #7 |
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Here is my dissection of that nonsense claim about slavery in ancient times:
http://iidb.org/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.c...c&f=6&t=000718 |
05-12-2004, 04:14 AM | #8 | |
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You had included a link on there to some information written by Professor John (Bert) Lott at Vassar college. It appears to be broken, so I searched the Vassar site, and got some good search results: http://www.google.com/u/vchome?q=slavery%20roman |
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05-12-2004, 04:58 AM | #9 | |||
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Also, I've not yet seen any actual materials supporting that defense, so I suspect right away that it's bullshit. (I'll read Vork's dissection with pleasure, I imagine.) Quote:
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05-12-2004, 07:20 AM | #10 | |
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-Gary |
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