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Old 02-17-2008, 08:19 AM   #61
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...
1 Cor. 7:26-31 (The remaining time is very short and the world is its present form will soon be gone. Things are so uncertain that it would be better not to get married.)
...
Holy heck ! Has someone told the vatican ?

And pardon, but what is happening here?
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.... The KJV has "until" while some of the others has "before" but both words do imply a death afterwards....And no christian dies after they witness the coming of Christ. Critics would do well to actually read the words before they make accusations. :wave:
Are the disciples not Christians? :huh:
Maybe you misunderstood. No christian dies after the return of Jesus. The word "Until" is the hint, that shows that they would die after they "SEE" His coming which they did in visions. When reading the letters of Paul, Peter, and John they describe the return of Jesus which they saw in visions and died afterwards. And also remember the Disciples were the only ones present when Jesus made that statement :wave:
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Old 02-17-2008, 09:18 AM   #62
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman
Maybe you misunderstood. No Christian dies after the return of Jesus. The word "Until" is the hint, that shows that they would die after they "SEE" His coming which they did in visions. When reading the letters of Paul, Peter, and John they describe the return of Jesus which they saw in visions and died afterwards. And also remember the Disciples were the only ones present when Jesus made that statement.
It doesn't matter. No God who wanted to convince people to believe that he can predict the future would always make disputable predictions.
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Old 02-17-2008, 01:13 PM   #63
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Maybe you misunderstood. No christian dies after the return of Jesus. The word "Until" is the hint, that shows that they would die after they "SEE" His coming which they did in visions. When reading the letters of Paul, Peter, and John they describe the return of Jesus which they saw in visions and died afterwards. And also remember the Disciples were the only ones present when Jesus made that statement :wave:
Thank you. Come to think of it I vaguely rememeber someone trying to use a teleportation explaination on me a long time ago.
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Old 02-17-2008, 02:00 PM   #64
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As evident from this discussion, Christian apologists commonly argue that Jesus was the incarnation of the “suffering servant” in Isaiah 53. More likely, the gospel writers embellished their crucifixion stories so as to make Jesus appear to conform to the Isa. 53 stereotype.

Be that as it may, Isa. 53:7 says, “He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth; he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.” (KJV) Whoever(whatever) this “suffering servant” was intended to represent, Isa 53:7 says that he(it) will not utter a word in his(its) defense and will be as dumb as a sheep before the shearer.

On the other hand, the gospels depict Jesus as being anything but silent in the face of his accusers. In Luke 22: 67-69 Jesus proclaims that he is the “Son of God.” (See also Matt. 26:63-64 and Mark 14:61-62.) John has him being even more loquacious. In John 18:33-37, Jesus, after considerable verbal dodging, acknowledges that he considers himself to be a king. (See also John 18:19-23 and 19:11.) Then of course there are Jesus’ last words on the cross for which there are inconsistencies among the gospels. If Isa. 53:7 describes one of the characteristics of the future messiah, then Jesus does not qualify as someone who fulfilled the purported prophecy, despite the creative efforts of the biblical story tellers.

For more details why Jesus does not meet the specs of Isa. 53, see http://www.jewsforjudaism.org/web/faq/faq-ss.html .
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Old 02-17-2008, 03:31 PM   #65
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
We are that generation.
This claim has been made by every generation
since at least the year of 331 CE at which time
the first historically known instance of the Bible
was physically glued together by Eusebius under
orders of Constantine.

How many generations (of scholars and laypeople)
have made this unique claim? Has anyone estimated
how many generations between 331 and 2008?

Best wishes,



Pete Brown
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Old 02-17-2008, 08:12 PM   #66
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
We are that generation.
This claim has been made by every generation
since at least the year of 331 CE at which time
the first historically known instance of the Bible
was physically glued together by Eusebius under
orders of Constantine.

How many generations (of scholars and laypeople)
have made this unique claim? Has anyone estimated
how many generations between 331 and 2008?

Best wishes,

Pete Brown
In line with that link I provided earlier about the;
Quote:
63 failed & 1 ambiguous end-of-the-world
predictions between 30 CE and 1990 CE

http://www.religioustolerance.org/end_wrl2.htm
These predictions, plus hundreds of similar ones, all based upon the very same group of Bible verses, have been put forth for near two thousand years, and been claimed to be "true" and accurate by countless millions of believers.
Yet the one thing that all these millions of "witnesses" really have in common, is the fact that THEY -ALL- HAVE PROVEN TO BE DEAD WRONG.

(and of course most are now just plain dead, and their false claims dead with them)

Of course that "little" fact is never enough to prevent more false prophets, and their sycophants from prattling on with that same old crap,
Hoping that they can suck yet more men into the continued parroting of their idiocy.
Of course it has always helped the "cause", that they can turn a quick and easy buck by peddling their swill to the gullible.
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Old 02-17-2008, 09:14 PM   #67
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[ And also remember the Disciples were the only ones present when Jesus made that statement :wave:
He sugar, do you know why that was?

Because it is an inner journey and they were his eidelons. He's telling them that he's gonne make it! :wave: :wave:
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Old 02-17-2008, 09:33 PM   #68
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Prophesy to Christians really seems to share something in common with gambling. They concentrate on the possibility rather than the plausibility.

It'd be funny if it wasn't quite sad.
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Old 02-18-2008, 01:23 AM   #69
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
The KJV has "until" while some of the others has "before" but both words do imply a death afterwards....And no christian dies after they witness the coming of Christ. Critics would do well to actually read the words before they make accusations. :wave:
It could simply be saying that some would live to see the event. I doubt it has to be saying that they will die.

I think your making something out of nothing, and ignoring the strong correspondence between those verses and the Olivet Discourse. The description of the event, and the time of the event, line up perfectly. That assumes a certain interpretation of "this generation", but such harmony between them is evidence for reading it, "this present generation".
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Old 02-18-2008, 01:33 AM   #70
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
The word "Until" is the hint, that shows that they would die after they "SEE" His coming which they did in visions.
Yeah right. Christians have a load of explanations for those verses. That they are about the Transfiguration, or Pentecost, or the Ascension. To say that they are talking about "visions" is probably the lamest excuse that Christians use.

By the way, some Christians agree with the skeptic that the verses are talking about the "Second Coming".

Can you find even 1 skeptic that would agree with your own position?
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