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Old 02-06-2006, 06:59 PM   #1
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Default Egyptology Sets Up a Straw Man

"Where is the Exodus in Egyptian records ?"

Question is only asked because none exists.

Where does ANY Near East nation record defeats which justifies the validity of the question ?

Only in the Bible/Israel ( proof content was controlled by God as claimed).

The silence of Egyptian records supports the Exodus because Near East nations do not record defeats. Therefore the rhetorical question of where is the Exodus in Egyptian records is a straw man.

Ray Martinez
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Old 02-06-2006, 07:54 PM   #2
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Is there any evidence that the Jews were enslaved by the Egyptians for 400 years? There should be lots of evidence of that, right?
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Old 02-06-2006, 08:10 PM   #3
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Surely there would be a mention of the Jews in te egyption record, assuming that they were enslaved for 400 years, even if the Pharoah at the time decided not to mention the Jews doing a runner.

EDIT: Willowtree in the future can you format your argument better please. It tookme a little while to work out what this was about.
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Old 02-06-2006, 08:17 PM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
The silence of Egyptian records supports the Exodus because Near East nations do not record defeats. Therefore the rhetorical question of where is the Exodus in Egyptian records is a straw man.
The silence can't "support" the Exodus over the alternatives. At the very best the record keeping tendencies of Egyptians could render the silence consistent with the Exodus. That is to say, we shouldn't expect to see it in the Egyptian records, even if it occurred. But the silence is equally consistent (and perhaps simpler) under the hypothesis that there was no Exodus at all. Or that a Zambrusian Mind Puppet magically destroyed all records. Or...well, you get the drift.

More importantly as RUmike pointed out, where is the evidence that the Egyptians enslaved the Jews for 400 years? And if that is lacking, why on earth would you believe it?
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Old 02-06-2006, 08:20 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
"Where is the Exodus in Egyptian records ?"

Question is only asked because none exists.
This assertion itself is a straw man. Historians do not draw any conclusions merely from the lack of a specific record of the Exodus but from the utter lack of any Israelite presence whatsoever in Egypt for the 400 years they were allegedly enslaved there, from the lack of any archaeological evidence in the Sinai Peninsula for any human presence at all during the time in question, much less the kind of mass migration described in Exodus, and most of all from the evidence in Palestine itself which shows that the Israelites were an an indigenous Canaanite population which never left, never migrated back from the Sinai and never conquered Canaan.
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Old 02-06-2006, 08:42 PM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RUmike
Is there any evidence that the Jews were enslaved by the Egyptians for 400 years? There should be lots of evidence of that, right?
<edit>

The word "Jews" doesn't appear in Scripture until after the death of Solomon.

Ray
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Old 02-06-2006, 08:44 PM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by grendelfreak
Surely there would be a mention of the Jews in te egyption record, assuming that they were enslaved for 400 years, even if the Pharoah at the time decided not to mention the Jews doing a runner.

EDIT: Willowtree in the future can you format your argument better please. It tookme a little while to work out what this was about.
Insult = inability to refute.

Why have you evaded each point ? = inability to refute.

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Old 02-06-2006, 08:47 PM   #8
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Quote:
But the silence is equally consistent (and perhaps simpler) under the hypothesis that there was no Exodus at all.
Where does ANY Near East nation record defeats ?

The silence is because the ancient Near East did not record defeats.

Why is the question even asked (topic title) ?

Ray
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Old 02-06-2006, 08:51 PM   #9
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
This assertion itself is a straw man. Historians do not draw any conclusions merely from the lack of a specific record of the Exodus
Nonsense.

Egyptologists ask the question because they know there is no mention of the greatest defeat of all time in Egyptian records.

What is your position in the scholarly world to speak for all historians ?

Or is your Admin position insulate yourself from anyone asking this logical question ?


Quote:
but from the utter lack of any Israelite presence whatsoever in Egypt for the 400 years they were allegedly enslaved there, from the lack of any archaeological evidence in the Sinai Peninsula for any human presence at all during the time in question, much less the kind of mass migration described in Exodus, and most of all from the evidence in Palestine itself which shows that the Israelites were an an indigenous Canaanite population which never left, never migrated back from the Sinai and never conquered Canaan.
Atheist philosophy.

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Old 02-06-2006, 09:18 PM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE

Atheist philosophy.

Ray
Would you be willing to elaborate on what you mean by the quoted?
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