Sensei Meela

Deuteronomy 29
29 The secret things belong to the LORD our God, but the things revealed belong to us and to our children forever, that we may follow all the words of this law.


Arguing about the kashrut on another board, I referenced the above verse but reproduced it (from a post by a member on these boards) using different wording..."Deut 29:29 ...he has revealed his law and we and our descendants are to obey it forever."

Searching through Bible-gateway.com, I could not find the verse as worded by the II poster and, after looking at the 'actual' passage, I am not quite convinced that it is saying what that poster (and I) have purported it to say.

So: does the verse mean (to say) that Israel and her children (to whom the Law was revealed and belongs) are to follow the Law forever? Or no?

motorhead

There's several verses in the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament) that state in one way or another that the Jewish Law should be followed forever. No, I'm not going to dig up the verses here. If someone else feels like it, you'll find them.

Sensei Meela

To be fair, I think it's more or less only inferred from the passages, and not stated as a direct command (as in 'thou shalt obey forever' or whatnot). Unregardless...

...supposing, then, that the Law is to be obeyed forever, would it not constitute a 'change' to the Law -- directly contrary to what Jesus allegedly said in Matt 5:17-18 -- to declare all foods clean (as he did in Mark 7:19)?

Wouldn't it be a change (not to mention a series of tenuous intrepretations) to make the Law 'not binding' to anyone but Christ (and, presumably those 'children of Israel' who didn't accept him)?

And, as a child of Israel (through two conflicting genealogies!), wouldn't Jesus himself be 'bound' to them (if he is to 'fulfill them for us', as is commonly preached)?

Freethinker2004

I believe it's stated somewhere in the text not to change any law "to the right or the left". However, I don't have a bible handy..