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02-20-2006, 05:44 AM | #1 |
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The literary record
One of the arguments I often come across about the historical authenticity of the Bible is number of copies and date of them. Usually summarised something like
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Author When Written Earliest Copy Time Span # of copies Caesar 100 - 44 BC 900 AD 1,000 years 10 Tacitus AD 100 1,100 AD 1,000 years 20 Pliny AD 61 - 113 850 AD 750 years 7 Herodotus 480 - 425 BC 900 AD 1,300 years 8 Aristotle 384 - 322 BC 1,100 AD 1,400 years 5 I know its not really an argument in itself, but I wondered if this is a case of cherry picking the evidence. Are there other ancient texts that we have lots of copies of, date from a similar time and have perhaps short time spans? Anyone kow of examples? Some trivial examples, which aren't books, would be the rossetta stone, the Egyptian stylie - but are there any manuscripts? |
02-20-2006, 09:05 AM | #2 | |
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The figures for the New Testament manuscripts, though, are grossly inflated, to put it mildly. A typical claim is 5,300 Greek manuscripts. If you're counting only more or less complete copies, the actual number is four. The other 5,296 or whatever are just portions, and mostly small ones. |
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02-20-2006, 09:25 AM | #3 |
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The figures I've seen quoted include:
Presumably the Tacitus copies quoted, for instance, are complete copies. |
02-20-2006, 09:28 AM | #4 | |
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Stephen |
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02-20-2006, 10:52 AM | #5 | ||
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All manuscripts of the 'Annals' of Tacitus are probably copies of an extant medieval manuscript It (and all copies thereof) lack large parts of the original work. Andrew Criddle |
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03-06-2006, 08:11 AM | #6 |
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Anyone got a debunking for this oft-quoted evidence for the authenticity of the NT?
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03-06-2006, 08:32 AM | #7 | |
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It can't be debunked with integrity, because it is in fact true. Whether it is significant is another matter. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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03-06-2006, 08:43 AM | #8 | |
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Firstly, are we presuming that the contents of the biblical text are correct simply because it has been well transmitted to us? Is this post of mine correct, merely because it is exactly what I wrote? So I think that we are really discussing whether or not the New Testament text has come down to us accurately -- or at least, as accurately as texts in general come down to us -- from antiquity. Secondly, are we happy to lose the majority of our knowledge of ancient literature? The majority of texts from antiquity reach us in a single hand-written copy (i.e. manuscript), usually written no earlier than the revival of learning in the 9th century and often much later. Some texts are now extant in no manuscript; a manuscript existed in 1500, someone printed a text from it, and then the manuscript was lost. Examples are Velleius Paterculus, and Tertullian De ieiunio. Again Macarius Magnes, Apocriticus existed in a manuscript in 1900, but this is now lost and we depend on a very rare printed text of that time. The NT is extant in very large numbers of copies, in various languages, some of very early date. Any argument that 'proves' that we do not certainly have a text of the NT which is more or less what the authors wrote will likewise dispose of all ancient literature. Thirdly, we need to keep clear the distinction between literary texts which reach us by copying down the centuries, and archaeological inscriptions, or fragments of letters, etc, all by their very nature originals. If we discard everything except these, we lose most classical literature. I'm not quite sure why people get into difficulties on this. Who copied all the ancient texts? What sort of texts did they need? The answer is monks, who needed (a) bibles and (b) prayer books and (c) books of ancient theology. So these are going to exist in quantity, and early copies will get preserved (all other things being equal, statistics comes into it somewhere). So naturally the NT is going to be one of the best preserved texts. Whether the tale it tells is true is, of course, quite another issue. But atheists who try to debunk the transmission of texts always end up as obscurantists. Don't go there. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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03-08-2006, 01:14 PM | #9 | |
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The early manuscript , p72, contains Jude and 1 and 2 Peter, and also The Nativity of Mary,the eleventh Ode of Solomon,Melito's Homily on the Passover,the Apology of Phileas. How can the existence of p72 prove the historical authenticity of 1 and 2 Peter while the very same manuscript is no evidence at all that the Nativity of Mary is historically authentic? Are there any Greek manuscripts before AD 800 which contain 27 and only 27 New Testament books? No - a factoid, at least as relevant as any in the table in the OP (ie of no relevance whatsoever) How do the manuscripts of Genesis compare, time-gap-wise, with the originals? Are we ready to concede that we do not have what the original author of Genesis wrote? |
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03-09-2006, 04:13 AM | #10 | |
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Vorkosigan |
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