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Old 12-28-2008, 08:45 PM   #541
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They were enemies of war. They were being made subjects due to the loss in a battle. India was a subject of the British Empire. This, in and of itself is not immoral. It depends on the treatment.

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Let's see,


lol, both are immoral.
so, now it is immoral for a country to win a war. Was it immoral to occupy Germany, Italy, and Japan after WWII? Was it immoral to make them pay war reparations (the modern equivalent of tribute outlined in Lev 20:11)
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Old 12-28-2008, 08:53 PM   #542
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1. It does not say "injured", contrary to you made-up claims.
2. The text says "servant" - I just proved it.


So? The word in Hebrew is the same. If you think that the word is mistranslated in the KJV, then you'll need to provide proof for that. Nobody is going to take your word for it.


Now you're the one being dishonest. You utterly failed to respond to this. Would you like to try again?



"And if a man smite the eye of his BONDMAN, or the eye of his BONDWOMAN; he shall let him go free for his eye's sake." JPS the Jewish bible

I would like to add that the use of teeth and eyes is a literary tool to provide an example. When the law says an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth, it is not neglecting what to do when an ear has been severed. The underlying priinciple is to limit revenge and to keep it from escalating. It is not a definitive list of the body parts covered by the law.

In the same way, the eye and tooth of the slave does not provide a list of body parts covered by the abuse law. It provides a rule that can be applied by a judge. Ie. You were not allowed to cut off a slaves ear, fingers, toes, or other body parts either. The same law applies.
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Old 12-28-2008, 09:07 PM   #543
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This is true.
But how much are they really different?
It doesn't matter; sugarhitman's question is only an attempt to change the subject, since he's clearly unable to answer my question about why the bible tolerates and even promotes an immoral act like slavery.

<remove certain references>
actually, it may be a distraction but it is equally illogical for a Muslim not to respect the law of Moses since the Koran is very clear as to it's purpose.
Surah 2:53 And when We gave Musa the Book and the distinction that you might walk aright.
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Old 12-28-2008, 09:11 PM   #544
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Why was divorce permitted under the mosaic law?
An irrelevant question since

1. slavery is not divorce;
2. divorce was not considered immoral;
3. slavery is not indentured servitude;
4. murder was not permitted, so there are obviously some absolute morals - why didn't the Bible put slavery in that category?

The question stands: if the bible considered slavery is immoral, then why was it permitted?

Here is the answer that you are avoiding admitting: the Bible did not consider slavery immoral. Even though we know that slavery is wrong today, the Bible actually endorses it.

Conclusion:
the morality of Enlightenment humanity is actually superior to the Bible in that regard.
Are you joking? What enlightnement philosopher did you have in mind?
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Old 12-28-2008, 09:23 PM   #545
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Yes that would be immoral... but how do you know that people weren't just told that the tribes did these things in order to put them in a bad light, that one passage?
quote:

The land of Canaan was already inhabited by people before the Israelites settled during the
Iron Age (ca. 1200-1000 B.C.E.). There is archaeological evidence that the Canaanites of
the second millennium B.C. practiced the ritual of child sacrifice due to excavations of a shrine
to Baal near the city of Gezer. These excavations have yielded clay jars containing the charred
bones of infants and some older children (refer to picture on the left) (P. Hugues Vincent 188-192). Click on the following images:

passage taken from http://instruct1.cit.cornell.edu/cou...canaanite.html
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Old 12-28-2008, 10:54 PM   #546
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so, now it is immoral for a country to win a war.
It is immoral to make the conquered people slaves and exploit them.

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Was it immoral to occupy Germany, Italy, and Japan after WWII? Was it immoral to make them pay war reparations (the modern equivalent of tribute outlined in Lev 20:11)
It is not the modern equivalent. You don't know what you're talking about.
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Old 12-28-2008, 10:57 PM   #547
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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
I would like to add that the use of teeth and eyes is a literary tool to provide an example. When the law says an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth, it is not neglecting what to do when an ear has been severed. The underlying priinciple is to limit revenge and to keep it from escalating.
No, that is not the underlying principle. IN point of fact, slaves did not have any right or recourse to revenge - either as a legal or a practical matter. Had they assaulted or killed a Hebrew master, then they would be foreigners guilty of the assault (or murder) of a Hebrew. That would meant the slave, as a foreigner, facing Hebrew law under Hebrew judges. Can you work the rest of it out for yourself, or do I need to draw you a map?

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It is not a definitive list of the body parts covered by the law.

In the same way, the eye and tooth of the slave does not provide a list of body parts covered by the abuse law. It provides a rule that can be applied by a judge. Ie. You were not allowed to cut off a slaves ear, fingers, toes, or other body parts either. The same law applies.
Which doesn't matter to the current conversation, since:

1. the original state of slavery was immoral - adding little bits of humane treatment around the edges does not change that fact;

2. the text clearly indicates that slaves were not people, but property
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Old 12-28-2008, 11:01 PM   #548
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It doesn't matter; sugarhitman's question is only an attempt to change the subject, since he's clearly unable to answer my question about why the bible tolerates and even promotes an immoral act like slavery.

<remove certain references>
actually, it may be a distraction but it is equally illogical for a Muslim
It is not equally illogical. You are clearly ignorant of the role that the OT plays in Islam; quoting a sura about Moses in isolation does not support your position.

You're barely familiar with the OT; do yourself a favor and try not to lecture about other religions, hmm?
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Old 12-29-2008, 12:24 AM   #549
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Originally Posted by Sheshonq View Post
An irrelevant question since

1. slavery is not divorce;
2. divorce was not considered immoral;
3. slavery is not indentured servitude;
4. murder was not permitted, so there are obviously some absolute morals - why didn't the Bible put slavery in that category?

The question stands: if the bible considered slavery is immoral, then why was it permitted?

Here is the answer that you are avoiding admitting: the Bible did not consider slavery immoral. Even though we know that slavery is wrong today, the Bible actually endorses it.

Conclusion:
the morality of Enlightenment humanity is actually superior to the Bible in that regard.
Are you joking?
Not at all. Apparently you're ignorant of the Enlightenment period.

Quote:
What enlightnement philosopher did you have in mind?
Montesquieu, Rousseau, Voltaire, Raynal, Smith, Du Pont, Kant - for starters.
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Old 12-29-2008, 12:55 AM   #550
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Exciter View Post
Yes that would be immoral... but how do you know that people weren't just told that the tribes did these things in order to put them in a bad light, that one passage?
quote:

The land of Canaan was already inhabited by people before the Israelites settled during the
Iron Age (ca. 1200-1000 B.C.E.). There is archaeological evidence that the Canaanites of
the second millennium B.C. practiced the ritual of child sacrifice due to excavations of a shrine
to Baal near the city of Gezer. These excavations have yielded clay jars containing the charred
bones of infants and some older children (refer to picture on the left) (P. Hugues Vincent 188-192). Click on the following images:

passage taken from http://instruct1.cit.cornell.edu/cou...canaanite.html
In point of fact this isn't as cut-and-dry as the article makes it out to be. The majority evidence consists of infants buried in jars, with the bones charred. But there are problems with this:

1. It is not possible to determine if this was a child sacrifice, or a stillborn child who died and was ritually cremated, with the remains buried in a jar;

2. The majority of evidence for any such child sacrifice comes not from Palestine, but from Carthage (another Phoenician city);

3. However in Carthage, it is confined to a time around 400-146 BC when Carthage was sacked and burned by Rome -and long after the supposed conquest of Canaan by the Hebrews

It may be that child sacrifice was practiced, but it's far from clear. It is far more likely that the Hebrews wanted to create a bete noire out of the surrounding tribes, and picked this practice as a way of demonizing them. It was the ancient parallel to saying "Communists like to eat babies" - even though Communists never did any such thing.
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