FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 03-18-2013, 08:45 PM   #531
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: On the path of knowledge
Posts: 8,889
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Grog View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sheshbazzar View Post
You fail to explain or give any reasons how or why this Centurion, a Roman Officer was able to recognize Jesus as being the Son of God,
or why the author of Mark would elevate this otherwise totally unmentioned, unknown, and never again mentioned character to such a exclusive position.

There is nothing to be found anywhere within these texts that makes this Roman centurion privy to more information or insight on Jezus than anyone else.

.
How? The centurion knows because he is simply a mouthpiece for what the author want to say. aa has made the point: you cannot separate the centurion from the author. The centurion knows because the author wants the centurion to know. It's a plot hole, one that the author did not much worry about covering.

Why? The clear reason is that it is the gentile centurion, irony of ironies, who recognizes the true nature of Jesus while the disciples were always doubtful or ignorant.

I don't find the sarcastic reading of the centurion's words at all persuasive and I think on this point, aa is correct.
I only presented the alternative viewpoint and persuasion, and the reasonings it was based upon, for such persons as were not aware that there was such an alternative understanding of the intent of the statement of Mark 15:39.

The respective arguments have already ran their course in this thread. To each his own. Accept whatever it is that you are personally persuaded of.

As far as I am concerned discussion of this matter in this thread was, and is finished.

If you are dying to discuss Mark 15:39 further, feel free to open a thread of your own devoted to the subject.

Return to Topic; 'Dating Paul'
Sheshbazzar is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 08:52 PM   #532
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
Quote:
Hi Bernard,
It would seem to make quite a bit of difference from your point of view. The longer the time interval after the alleged career of Paul, the less certain we can be that the documents that were at long last collected are the unadulterated words of the Apostle. Or were even written by him in the case of Marcion being the colletor.
Whereas, a very early collection would secure a set of texts with greater appeal to both authenticity and integrity.
Jake
I am sure that the epistles were adultered.
For example, 1 Corinthians, 2 Corinthians and Philippians were the result of a combination of 3 letters for each for reasons I explained here
These letters were interpolated also, as shown here, and here, and here
For Romans without the two last chapters and with the doxology, I addressed the problem here.
Galatians, 1 Thessalonians were also interpolated (explained on my website. Shown on demand).
But none of that involved Marcion who received the combined letters.
Cordially, Bernard
Hi Bernard, point of clarification: Are you agreeing that Marcion may be the first collector of the Pauline Epistles, or were you talking about something else?
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 08:56 PM   #533
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2011
Location: Bronx, NY
Posts: 945
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Grog View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sheshbazzar View Post
You fail to explain or give any reasons how or why this Centurion, a Roman Officer was able to recognize Jesus as being the Son of God,
or why the author of Mark would elevate this otherwise totally unmentioned, unknown, and never again mentioned character to such a exclusive position.

There is nothing to be found anywhere within these texts that makes this Roman centurion privy to more information or insight on Jezus than anyone else.



.
How? The centurion knows because he is simply a mouthpiece for what the author want to say. aa has made the point: you cannot separate the centurion from the author. The centurion knows because the author wants the centurion to know. It's a plot hole, one that the author did not much worry about covering.

Why? The clear reason is that it is the gentile centurion, irony of ironies, who recognizes the true nature of Jesus while the disciples were always doubtful or ignorant.

I don't find the sarcastic reading of the centurion's words at all persuasive and I think on this point, aa is correct.
There's another interpretation that the centurion said "a" son of god, not "the" son of God. Apparently the Greek could be interpreted either way.

He does not call Jesus Messiah or Christ, which would remove any doubt.

Perhaps the author wanted the reader to speculate on whether the centurion was unimpressed, impressed, or converted.
Horatio Parker is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 09:04 PM   #534
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: seattle, wa
Posts: 9,337
Default

Quote:
First, that would explain why 'Acts' and Paul's epistles being not popular among "orthodox" during that period (120- 220).
Yes by the same token Led Zeppelin II 'must not have been popular' in 1950 by the lack of airplay.

Quote:
They had Paul (not one of the twelve, not an eyewitness of Jesus) doing the preaching outside Palestine, and also to the Gentiles.

That goes against the idealistic picture of the twelve, immediately after the ascension, going all over the known world in order to make converts and essentially creating the Christian world.
If Mark doesn't have an ending beyond the empty tomb there is no conflict.

Quote:
Second, why would the "orthodox" create 'Acts' late in the second century and destroy that idealistic picture?
The purpose of Acts is to rescue ecumenism from hostility and diversity. Plain and simple.
stephan huller is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 09:52 PM   #535
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: seattle, wa
Posts: 9,337
Default

Aquila uses an unusual Greek word to translate Daniel 9:26 which may have properly substituted for the Aramaic mrq:

Quote:
And after the seven weeks and the sixty-two, he that is anointed (ἠλειμμένος) shall be cast out, and there is no place for him
The root ἀλείφω is entirely compatible with the Aramaic mrq:

Quote:
A.“-ψω” LXX Ex.40.15, (ἐξ-) E.IA1486, Pl.R.386c: aor. “ἤλειψα” Hom., Att., Ep. “ἄλειψα” Od.12.177: pf. ἀλήλι^φα (ἀπ-) D.52.2):—Med., fut. “-ψομαι” Th.4.68: aor. ἠλειψάμην Att., Ep. “ἀλ-” Il.14.171:—Pass., fut. ἀλειφθήσομαι (ἐξ-) D.25.73: aor. 1 “ἠλείφθην” Hp.Morb.4.54, Pl.Ly.217c, etc.: aor. 2 ἐξ-ηλίφην v.l. in Pl.Phdr.258b, (ἀπ-) D.C.55.3: pf “ἀλήλιμμαι” Th.4.68, (ἐξ-, ὑπ-) D.25.70, X.Oec.10.6 (-ει- is freq. found in pf. forms in codd.): (ἀ-, euph., λιπ-, cf. λίπος):—anoint the skin with oil, as was done after bathing, Act.referring to another, Med. to oneself, “λοῦσαι κέλετ᾽ ἀμφί τ᾽ ἀλεῖψαι” Il.24.582; Hom. elsewh. always adds λίπα or λίπ᾽ ἐλαίῳ (v. sub λίπα)“, πάντα λοέσσατο καὶ λίπ᾽ ἄλειψεν” Od.6.227; “λοεσσαμένω καὶ ἀλειψαμένω λίπ᾽ ἐλαίῳ” Il.10.577, cf. 14.171, 18.350: later of anointing for gymnastic exercises, “λίπα μετὰ τοῦ γυμνάζεσθαι ἠλείψαντο” Th.1.6; generally, “λίπα ἀλείφεσθαι” Id.4.68; “βακκάρι ῥῖνας” Hippon.41; of anointing the sick, Men.Georg.60, cf. Ep.Jac.5.14.
2. supply oil for gymnasts, ἀλειφούσης τῆς πόλεως CIG (add.) 1957g (Maced.); ἀ. πανήγυριν, ἔθνη, Inscr.Magn.163, OGI533.47 (Ancyra); οἱ -όμενοι youths undergoing gymnastic training, ib. 339.72 (Sestos), etc.; οἱ ἀ. ἐν τῷ γυμνασίῳ ib.764.5 (Pergam.), al.; ἀλείφεσθαι παρά τινι to attend a gymnastic school, Arr.Epict.1.2.26.
3. polish, “τράπεζαν” Diph.74; “δακτύλιον” Thphr.Char.21; “ἀγάλματα” Artem.2.33.
4. metaph., prepare as if for gymnastics, encourage, stimulate, instigate, Demad.17, Pl. ap. D.L.4.6; “ἐπὶ τὴν πολιτικὴν ἀγωνίαν” Phld.Rh.2.59 S.; “τινὰ ἐπὶ τὸν Κλώδιον” App.BC2.16, cf. Plu.Them.3; “τινὰ κατά τινος” Ph.1.549; “τινὰ ἐπὶ φαρμακείαν” App.Mac.11.7:—Pass., “τοὺς -ομένους ἐπί τι” Phld.Rh.2.158 S.
II. daub, plaster, besmear, οὔατα ἀλεῖψαι stop up ears, Od.12.47,177,200; “ἀ. αἵματι” Hdt.3.8; “μίλτῳ” X.Oec.10.5; “ψιμυθίῳ” Pl.Ly.217d; “κυανῷ” Paus.5.11.5.


I am now wondering if 'Marcionite' might have been the original Aramaic term behind the Latinized Greek term 'Christian.' The idea comes up over and over again in the Syriac writings. We are told that the Marcionites had a monopoly on the name 'Christian' in the East. But what does that really mean?

This is always what has bothered me about the term 'Christian' or 'Christianity.' There can't be any royal or messianic meaning associated with the anointing. How could every Christian be a 'Christ'? The consistent Pauline identification of the initiate as an 'athlete' would fit the idea if the original term 'Marcionite' somehow meant 'rubbed with oil,' 'polished,' 'cleansed' and 'purified.'

Remember there are no Targums for Daniel. I don't know if that is because the work already appears in part in Aramaic or there is some other reason. Daniel is a most mysterious text.
stephan huller is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 10:01 PM   #536
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2009
Location: England
Posts: 2,527
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by maryhelena View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post

The Pauline epistles had already been largely composed by the Marcionite communities of Asia Minor before Marcion emerged to the West. We don't have to suppose that Marcion wrote all of them personally.

Now, the Marcionite epistles were not in the form we have them in our Bibles today. They were shorter and more concise. The Pastorals and Acts were absent, not having been written yet.

Jake
Jake, you are sidestepping the questions I'm asking you. Why?

Why are you not prepared to state your case - to put your position on the table?
Pauline Christianity arose in Asia Minor in the areas of Galatia, Pontus, and evirons. The Great Apostle was gone and long rumored to be dead. But he "returned" again and again in terrifying epistles.

The “spirit of Paul” sent forth his emissaries in the form of the bearers of his posthumous letters. The epistles in reality were written by later followers, channeling what Paul “would have said;” e.g. 1 Corinthians Sosthenes, 2 Corinthians 1:1 Timothy, Tertius in the 16th chapter of Romans. The bearers of these letters would use them as credentials with the various Pauline churches. We see this in the “fill in the blank” ______ brother of 2 Corinthians 12:18 noted by R.Price.

The figure of Paul arose and held the ascendency in heretical circles, and was only grudgingly accepted by the proto-orthodox after massive changes. The earliest collection of Pauline epistles (without the Pastorals which were not yet written) appeared in Rome in the hands of Marcion ca. 140 CE give or take a few years.

So Mary, I now have a questuon for you. Who had the first collection of Pauline epistles from your point of view?

Best,
Jake
Jake, these are my questions for you. Post #488. You have not answered them - and yet now you want me to answer your question....:huh:

1) What dating are you using for Paul?
2) Do you find the Paul=Marcion theory credible?

Jake, put your cards on the table. This 20 page discussion is going around the houses. What are you wanting to propose re Paul and Marcion?

How does "all the Pauline epistles are inauthentic" relate to the two questions I have asked?

Why are you not providing a straight answer to my questions?
maryhelena is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 10:04 PM   #537
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: seattle, wa
Posts: 9,337
Default

ימרקון ית חוביהון "they will cleanse their sins" FT (fragmentary targum) Lev 26:43 http://books.google.com/books?id=_xq...%D7%9F&f=false

Full reference:

Quote:
But the land will remain abandoned by them and it will enjoy its sabbaths of rest all the days that it lies desolate without them, and they will cleanse their sins (ימרקון ית חוביהון), measure for measure, one verdict for another verdict, (because) they spurned my ordinances and their soul abhorred the statutes of my law.
another fragmentary Targum reads ymrqo

Quote:
וארעא תישבוק מנהון ותרעי ית שובי שמיטהא כל יומין דהות צדו מנהון ואינון ימרקו ית חוביהון מכלא חלף מכלא וסדרין חלף סדרין ית סדר דיניי מאסו
stephan huller is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 10:10 PM   #538
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
First, that would explain why 'Acts' and Paul's epistles being not popular among "orthodox" during that period (120- 220). They had Paul (not one of the twelve, not an eyewitness of Jesus) doing the preaching outside Palestine, and also to the Gentiles. That goes against the idealistic picture of the twelve, immediately after the ascension, going all over the known world in order to make converts and essentially creating the Christian world....
According to the Church Paul did NOT live 120-220 CE so what you claim does NOT make much sense.

The reason why Paul and the Pauline letters were unknown is because the Pauline character and letters were NOT fabricated up to at least 180 CE when it was claimed by a French Man Jesus was crucified under Claudius at about the age of 50 years.

It is virtually impossible for Irenaeus [the FRENCH Man] to have ARGUED that Jesus was crucified under Cladius at about 50 years of age if he was AWARE that Paul preached CHRIST CRUCIFIED since 37-41 CE and was in Damascus in a basket in the reign of King Aretas.

See Against Heresies 2.22 and the Demonstration of Apostolic Teachings attributed to Irenaeus.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
.... why would the "orthodox" create 'Acts' late in the second century and destroy that idealistic picture?

Cordially, Bernard
The "orthodox" claimed Acts of the Apostles was UNIVERSALLY authentic and was written in the 1st century by Luke a companion of Paul.

Why would the "orthodox" admit Acts of the Apostles is a forgery or that it was NOT composed by Luke in the 1st century and expose the fraud??

Church History 2.
Quote:
6. For in the Acts of the Apostles, a work universally acknowledged as authentic, it is recorded that all the companions of the apostles sold their possessions and their property and distributed to all according to the necessity of each one...
It would appear that Acts of the Apostles and its author were unknown until "Against Heresies" suddenly appeared in the Hands of a FRENCH MAN who did NOT know when Pilate was governor or when Cladius was Emperor or when Jesus was crucified or when Paul preached that Christ Suffered.

We must investigate "Against Heresies" attributed to the French Man called Irenaeus.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 10:27 PM   #539
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Horatio Parker View Post
There's another interpretation that the centurion said "a" son of god, not "the" son of God. Apparently the Greek could be interpreted either way.

He does not call Jesus Messiah or Christ, which would remove any doubt.

Perhaps the author wanted the reader to speculate on whether the centurion was unimpressed, impressed, or converted.
The author of gMark claimed his Jesus was the Son of the Blessed when he was on trial before the Sanhedrin.

Mark 14
Quote:
Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? 62 And Jesus said , I am. and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. 63 Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith , What need we any further witnesses?

64 Ye have heard the blasphemy: what think ye? And they all condemned him to be guilty of death.
The Jesus of the gMark Myth Fable was the Son of God and was found guilty of death for BLASPHEMY.

In Jewish Laws claiming to be a God is Blasphemy.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 03-18-2013, 10:44 PM   #540
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2003
Location: Alberta, Canada
Posts: 927
Default

Quote:
Hi Bernard, point of clarification: Are you agreeing that Marcion may be the first collector of the Pauline Epistles, or were you talking about something else?
That's what I said before. He may be, others may be.
Marcion made use of 10 letters, but others made use before him of Paul's letters, one at the time, such as the author of Colossians (who knew about Philemon), the author of Ephesians (who borrowed a lot from Colossians) and the author of 2 Thessalonians (who borrowed a lot from 1 Thessalonians). These later authors might have known about other Pauline epistles, more so the one of Ephesians. And later, the author(s) of the "Pastorals" made use of Paul and the Pauline epistle genre.

Cordially, Bernard
Bernard Muller is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 09:21 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.