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12-21-2006, 10:14 AM | #61 | |
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And more important in my eyes is Mark's notion that it was not what is said/claimed by Jesus that is blasphemous in the eyes of the High Priest. It is that it's the upstart, anti purity, anti-Temple, anti Zealotic Jesus who says it. It is, after all, the claim on the part of anti-purity, anti temple, anti Jewish boundary marker, anti Zealotic followers of Jesus to be representing the will of Israel's God that led Paul to think the Jesus movement should be condemned as denigrating Israel's God and threatening the safety of Israel. Jeffrey |
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12-21-2006, 10:48 AM | #62 | |
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And have you noted how much of a harmonizer and misreader of biblical texts Brunner is? There's no manger in the "kings" story in Matthew, nor are the "kings" (is this what Matthew calls them?) anywhere ever said in the Biblical infancy narratives to have traveled to a manger, let alone as having anywhere met an ox and a lamb (which, BTW, are not ever mentioned even in the Lukan "manger" story!) Instead, they go to a house (Matt. 2:11 and they do indeed find Jesus along with Mary. So much for Brunner's biblical scholarship and his ability to read and report on the texts he adduces carefully and precisely and apart from extremely questionable preconceptions about what they do/have to say. And "Christ the Genius"?? Could you please show me where this title is used of Jesus in any NT writing? More importantly, you still haven't answered my question of why I (or anyone) should take the 13th century German Eckhart over anyone else as the true interpreter of what Jesus said. Nor have acknowledged how your claims about how the High priest was not working from the understanding of what Jesus (reputedly) meant by XRISTOS/hUIOS TOU QEOU undercuts your claims that Jesus was deemed blasphemous for mystically identifying himself with God. And I also note that you still haven't answered my questions about the ethnic identity of the Galatians and the Thessalonians, let alone that of Theophilus. Why is that? JG |
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12-21-2006, 10:57 AM | #63 | |
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Jake Jones IV |
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12-21-2006, 11:05 AM | #64 |
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12-21-2006, 11:17 AM | #65 |
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It seems to me that, due to the number of parallels you found in your excellent article between the account in Josephus and the trial of Jesus in Mark, that the simplest explanation is that the author of Mark had read the trial of Zacharias, the son of Baris, by a Zealot Sanhedrin in Josephus, B.J. 4.334-344.
Other explanations, such as Mark read another unknown account by someone other than Josephus, or that Mark and Josephus both heard the story of Zacharias first hand, and independantly produced these parallels, require more assumptions. What is the latest possible date for the writing of Mark? Why? Would this preclude au_GMark from reading Josephus before writing his gospel? But by all means, it is your observation, so I will leave the last word to you. Thanks, Jake |
12-21-2006, 11:43 AM | #66 | ||
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And since (I'm assuming) Josephus did not make up the story of the trial, that it the trail actually happened, that Josephus was not an eyewitness to the trial, and that therefore Josephus' account is a reproduction of a tradition/ report that came to him, why would the story be unavailable to Mark? And why, if the story as reported in Josephus is reasonably accurate, should the version that Mark reproduced not have the same structure as the one we find in Josephus? And, leaving aside that fact that your notion that absent dependence, the only way to explain the parallels is Mark and Josephus having to have heard the story "first hand" to be as close as the Markan and Josphan versions are to one another and still be independent of one another is a false dichotomy (either first hand or dependence), why is it impossible or unlikely for both Mark and Josephus to each have heard it "first hand"?, especially since neither was an eye witness and they had to get the tradition from somewhere/someone else? Jeffrey |
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12-21-2006, 11:51 AM | #67 | |
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12-21-2006, 11:52 AM | #68 | |
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(Oh, who's Gardner when he's at home? Anyone worth a laugh?) spin |
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12-21-2006, 11:58 AM | #69 | |
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Either,
You find option #2 preferable because the writing of GMark sometime in the late 90s is not likely in your eyes. Jake |
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12-21-2006, 12:17 PM | #70 | ||
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Gardner used to complain that the reason he never got (or expected to get) a "fair hearing" for his views was because of the "conservatism of [scholars] who do not care to revise their theories... especially when that revision is made necessary by discoveries ... made independently of the great universities." These scholars, "have their professional freemasonry. If you are not one of them, they do not want to listen to you." For more on Gardner and other cranks who uttered similar (and worse) charges against those in academia who could not see "the truth", have a look at Marvin B. Gardner's (no relation) Fads and Fallacies in the Name of Science (or via: amazon.co.uk). Jeffrey |
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