judge

Um...Chris you never really made a response in the other thread except to dismiss my claim without dealing with the arguments.

Go and have look if you doubt me.

Chris Weimer

I didn't dismiss your claim, I merely said we went over this already. Furthermore, spin annihilated your Aramaic claim. And you still evade my claim.

judge

Spin showed that there were latin loan words in the peshitta.
So what?
There are aramaic words in the greek versions as well.

Spin gave a very convincing argument for the trajectory of a latin word into aramaic IIRC.
So what?
This does not necessarily have anything at all to do with the gospels.

Spin argued there were explanations in the peshitta indicating translation.
So what?
There are explanations in the greek as well.

Now you argue that more variety in the greek means a greek original but this too works the other way, even more so.

I admit your argument is perhaps suggestive, but it is not that strong when these things work both ways.

Johann_Kaspar

So because you read it, it means that it is true and that you are right

Johann_Kaspar

Which French
And how many French's are there

Johann_Kaspar

Edit

spin

Whoa there, babies. This tangent on a passing example is getting out of hand.

The discussion was about two grammatical forms of the one name (there are other examples, such as Miriam/Maria), one being declinable the other not and these two forms are used differently in Greek but there is no sign of this in Aramaic, so that there must have been an existent community of Greek speakers who made the distinction.

Do not get your k-nickers in a k-not.


spin

Diogenes the Cynic

Please stay on topic and refrain from gratuitous taunting and ad hominems.

DtC: Moderator, BC&H