Freethought & Rationalism Archive

vid · 12-21-2009, 04:38 AM

Ignatius, Letter to Smyrnaeans, chapter 3:

Quote:

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.v.vii.iii.html

For I know that after His resurrection also He was still possessed of flesh[990], and I believe that He is so now. When, for instance, He came to those who were with Peter, He said to them, “Lay hold, handle Me, and see that I am not an incorporeal spirit.”[991]

...

990 Literally, “in the flesh.”
991 Literally, “demon.” According to Jerome, this quotation is from the Gospel of the Nazarenes. Comp. Luke xxiv. 39.

The work of Jerome in question is On Life of Illustrious men, chapter 16:

Quote:

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/2708.htm

Ignatius, third bishop of the church of Antioch after Peter the apostle, condemned to the wild beasts during the persecution of Trajan, was sent bound to Rome, and when he had come on his voyage as far as Smyrna, where Polycarp the pupil of John was bishop, he wrote one epistle To the Ephesians, another To the Magnesians, a third To the Trallians, a fourth To the Romans, and going thence, he wrote To the Philadelphians and To the Smyrneans and especially To Polycarp, commending to him the church at Antioch. In this last he bore witness to the Gospel which I have recently translated, in respect of the person of Christ saying, "I indeed saw him in the flesh after the resurrection and I believe that he is," and when he came to Peter and those who were with Peter, he said to them "Behold! Touch me and see me how that I am not an incorporeal spirit" and straightway they touched him and believed.

As we see, Jerome ascribes this to letter to Polycarp, not Smyrnaeans. This could be just a mistake of Jerome (or result of heavy editing of Ignatius' letters maybe?).

However, can somebody supply the reference from which we know that "the Gospel which I have recently translated" is Gospel of Nazarenes?

What do you think of this? Could Ignatius have had Gospel of Nazarenes, or is Jerome reading his latest translation into similar text?

vid · 12-21-2009, 05:16 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by vid

However, can somebody supply the reference from which we know that "the Gospel which I have recently translated" is Gospel of Nazarenes?

Found it. Jerome was writing about "Gospel according to Hebrews", which he got from Nazarenes. Seems there is some confusion whether gospel used by Nazarenes is the same "Hebrew Gospel" quoted by others in earlier times.

Quote:

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/2708.htm

On Illustrious Men, chapter 2
The Gospel also which is called the Gospel according to the Hebrews, and which I have recently translated into Greek and Latin

On Illustrious Men, chapter 3
Matthew, also called Levi, apostle and aforetimes publican, composed a gospel of Christ at first published in Judea in Hebrew for the sake of those of the circumcision who believed, but this was afterwards translated into Greek, though by what author is uncertain. The Hebrew itself has been preserved until the present day in the library at Cæsarea which Pamphilus so diligently gathered. I have also had the opportunity of having the volume described to me by the Nazarenes of Berœa, a city of Syria, who use it.

DCHindley · 12-21-2009, 07:39 AM

Early Christian authors were frequently citing now lost "gospels" and attributing a variety of names to them, causing confusing in identification.

The most complete scholarly collection of Apocryphal gospels, acts and revelations I know of, with plenty of analysis and cross references, is that by Wilhelm Schneemelcher, New Testament Apocrypha, edited by Wilhelm Schneemelcher (English translation [by A. J. B. Higgins and others] edited by R. McL. Wilson, 1963-1966, with a study edition in 1973+, a revised edition in 1991+, and the most recent revised edition (or via: amazon.co.uk) in 2003).

DCH

Quote:

Originally Posted by vid

Quote:

Originally Posted by vid

However, can somebody supply the reference from which we know that "the Gospel which I have recently translated" is Gospel of Nazarenes?

Found it. Jerome was writing about "Gospel according to Hebrews", which he got from Nazarenes. Seems there is some confusion whether gospel used by Nazarenes is the same "Hebrew Gospel" quoted by others in earlier times.

Quote:

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/2708.htm

On Illustrious Men, chapter 2
The Gospel also which is called the Gospel according to the Hebrews, and which I have recently translated into Greek and Latin

On Illustrious Men, chapter 3
Matthew, also called Levi, apostle and aforetimes publican, composed a gospel of Christ at first published in Judea in Hebrew for the sake of those of the circumcision who believed, but this was afterwards translated into Greek, though by what author is uncertain. The Hebrew itself has been preserved until the present day in the library at Cæsarea which Pamphilus so diligently gathered. I have also had the opportunity of having the volume described to me by the Nazarenes of Berœa, a city of Syria, who use it.

mountainman · 12-21-2009, 02:18 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by vid

However, can somebody supply the reference from which we know that "the Gospel which I have recently translated" is Gospel of Nazarenes?

What do you think of this? Could Ignatius have had Gospel of Nazarenes, or is Jerome reading his latest translation into similar text?

This text falls into the category of new testament apocryphal (NTA) (or non canonical) literature for which we do not have a text. Therefore it must fall into an entirely different evidential category when compared to the texts of the NTA for which we have some version of the original text to examine. There are a number (perhaps half a dozen) of NTA texts in this category.

Thread Tools	Search this Thread
Show Printable Version	Search this Thread: Advanced Search

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.