Freethought & Rationalism Archive

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 10:35 AM

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They enter, Holy Writ says, Capharnaum, the field of consolation. Now CAPHAR means field; NAVM, consolation. If, however, we mean Naum— in Hebrew there are multiple meanings, and the sense differs according to the difference in pronunciation—it can be taken as either consolation or beautiful. Capharnaum, therefore, may be translated as field of consolation or most beautiful land. In Scripture, where we read: 'Behold, how good it is, and how pleasant,' where we say, 'terpnon [pleasing], and Aquila translates, 'euprepes [fitting], the Hebrew has NAVM, which means beautiful. [Jerome Homily 76]

I am beginning to think the parallels between the wording in the Marcionite gospel, Luke and John is very significant. So too Abbott:

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"Going down to Capernaum"

John only thrice describes Jesus as "teaching," and only once as "teaching in synagogue1." Comparing this with the frequency of the Synoptic traditions about Christ's teaching, we ought to be prepared to suppose that John attached special importance to this particular "teaching in synagogue" and some importance to the fact that it was at " Capernaum."This supposition is confirmed by the fact that John agrees with Luke in using the phrase "went down (or, came down) to Capernaum" to introduce (apparently) a new stage in the proclamation of the Gospel 2 . It is also confirmed (not weakened) by the fact that the compiler of the Diatessaron omits the phrase in Luke 3 , and not only the phrase, but also the context in John. That indicates for those at least who have studied the Diatessaron and its ways that in early times discussion was probably frequent about this "going down to Capernaum" and about the questions "Whence did He come down?" and "What did He do when He had come down ? "

According to Tertullian, Marcion so mutilated the Gospel of Luke as to make it appear that Jesus came down "from heaven, straight to the synagogue" in Capernaum 1 . Heracleon, dealing with the Johannine "going down to Capernaum," said that "the beginning of another dispensation was indicated, since 'went down' is not without significance." He added that Capernaum signifies "the uttermost parts of the Cosmos, the regions of matter into which He 'came-down 2 .'"

So far, Origen, who quotes Heracleon as above, might agree with Heracleon as to the inferior and negative character of the revelation at Capernaum. But he demurs to what Heracleon says concerning the following words "and there [i.e. at Capernaum] they abode not many days. And the passover of the Jews was at hand, and Jesus went up. . ." on which Heracleon says "By reason of the strange and alien nature of the place, He is not even said to have done or spoken anything in it [i.e. in Capernaum] 1 ."

Yet Origen's only ground for demurring is that Mark and Luke relate, as occurring during this visit, the exorcism in the Capernaum Synagogue. To this Heracleon would have an obvious reply : "The Marcan exorcism could not have occurred during the Johannine visit to Capernaum; for Mark says clearly that what he relates about Capernaum took place after the Baptist's arrest ; John makes it no less clear that what he relates here about Capernaum took place before the Baptist's arrest^." It is hardly possible to doubt that Heracleon is right at all events in calling attention to the fact that Jesus "is not even said to have done or spoken anything" in the first brief (Johannine) visit to Capernaum. But about the Evangelist's motive in thus recording an apparently resultless action of Christ there may very well be doubt or, at least, doubt at the first view of the subject. [Abbott Diatessarica III p. 99]

[foot note] See Origen on Jn ii. 12 (Lomm. i. 291) quoting Heracleon to this effect. Origen himself says (Lomm. i. 288) that Capernaum means "field (n'y^os) of Consolation." Jerome calls it (Onomast. 64) " ager vel villa consolationis." In his comment on Mt. iv. 13, viii. 5. Jerome is silent as to its meaning. Pseudo- Jerome, on Mk i. 21, calls it "villa consolationis.

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 10:44 AM

Pseudo-Jerome's etymology does not change anything. villa is often used in the Vulgate to translate agros:

So Mark 15:21:

A certain man from Cyrene, Simon, the father of Alexander and Rufus, was passing by on his way in from the country (ἀγροῦ/villa) , and they forced him to carry the cross.

maryhelena · 03-28-2013, 10:50 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by stephan huller

Quote:

They enter, Holy Writ says, Capharnaum, the field of consolation. Now CAPHAR means field; NAVM, consolation. If, however, we mean Naum— in Hebrew there are multiple meanings, and the sense differs according to the difference in pronunciation—it can be taken as either consolation or beautiful. Capharnaum, therefore, may be translated as field of consolation or most beautiful land. In Scripture, where we read: 'Behold, how good it is, and how pleasant,' where we say, 'terpnon [pleasing], and Aquila translates, 'euprepes [fitting], the Hebrew has NAVM, which means beautiful. [Jerome Homily 76]

Love that, "most beautiful land".

And, at the end of the day, is that not what it's all about? Paradise on earth; the lame walk, the blind see; the land yields it's bounty. Utopia, Arcadia, etc. Yes, of course, miracles and magic-wands are of no help - but the desire - and the ability - to make changes in our environment - is the springboard to a new world. What is does not have to be...............

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 10:51 AM

Mary's evidence from Josephus is also curious. Why would 'the people of the country' call a fountain 'Capernaum' if it means 'village of consolation'? What on earth would cause people to name a fountain 'village'?

"it is also watered from a most fertile fountain.The people of the country call it Capharnaum. Some have thought it to be a vein of the Nile."

I am wondering whether this is evidence of an original Latin text with the word villa which was translated into Greek as 'village' because villa was taken to be diminutive of vicus (= village). So a small village called 'consolation.' Could this be more evidence for a Latin original text of Mark? And that this text became authoritative when reconstructing all the other gospels?

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 11:00 AM

According to the Franciscan monk webpage "Capharnaum, according to Jerome, means ‘field of fatness’, or ‘farm of consolation’ (ager pinquedinis, or villa consolationis)."

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 11:13 AM

Independent of what Origen says an imaginative explanation might be found in the Qumran text's interest in a 'young lion' (כְּפִיר) given the interest we know existed in near contemporary Jewish circles. The 'Lion of Wrath' (כְּפִיר הֶחָרוֹן, kefir he-Haron), character mentioned in the Nahum and Hosea commentaries from Qumran Cave 4 (4QpNahum):

http://books.google.com/books?id=zRB...0nahum&f=false

Justin has " And the expression, ‘They opened their mouth upon me like a roaring lion,’ designates him who was then king of the Jews, and was called Herod, a successor of the Herod who, when Christ was born, slew all the infants in Bethlehem born about the same time, because he imagined that amongst them He would assuredly be of whom the Magi from Arabia had spoken; for he was ignorant of the will of Him that is stronger than all, how He had commanded Joseph and Mary to take the Child and depart into Egypt, and there to remain until a revelation should again be made to them to return into their own country."

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 12:06 PM

Ezekiel 38:13 was mistranslated by the LXX. Instead of 'young lions' they rendered kefirim as kefarim (= villages). This might be part of the problem:

http://books.google.com/books?id=M-5...%3A%22&f=false

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 01:07 PM

I am quite aware that the 'Hebrew gospel' primacy argument is not big around here but the identification of Herod as 'young lion of Nahum' might be very plausible given what Epiphanius tells us about the opening words of that text:

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They falsify the genealogical tables in Matthew's Gospel and make its opening, as I said, 'It came to pass in the days of Herod, king of Judea, in the high-priesthood of Caiaphas, that a certain man, John by name, came baptizing with the baptism of repentance in the river Jordan' and so on [Epiphanius 30]

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 01:21 PM

The author of the Nahum Pesher calls Alexander Janneus “Angry Lion” ( kefir heharon) and remarks that he killed their enemies in a cruel and legally prohibited manner, he crucified them:

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He fills] his cave [with prey] and his den with spoils.” Its interpretation concerns the Angry Lion [… rev]enge against the seekers of smooth things, he would hanged living man [... which had not been committed] in Israel before, for it is [hor]rible for the one hanged alive upon the tree. (4Q169,3 - 4; 6 - 8)

After this, the author quotes the threatening oracle of Nah 2,14: “See, I am against you, says YHWH of Hosts…” Thus, the text describes the Jewish king of Jerusalem explicitly as one who disregards the divine commandment (cp. Deut 21:22 ‐ 23). http://www.academia.edu/1531290/From...he_Hasmonaeans

stephan huller · 03-28-2013, 04:13 PM

Some other Aramaic possibilities (i.e. 'Capernaum' was a corruption)

Quote:

ˁbr nhr, ˁbr nhrˀ = 'land across the river'

1 land across the river, i.e. Transeuphratia BAEzra, JLAtg, PTA, Syr, LJLA. Ezra4:11 אֱנָש עֲבַר־נַהֲרָה the people of Transeuphratia. TgJ 1Ki5:4 var. בְכָל עֵבַר פְרָת מִתִפסַח וְעַד עַזָה ובכל מַלכֵי עֵבַר נהרא FTP Num24:24 כל בני עבר נהרא P Ezra4:10 ܘܐܘܬܒ ܐܢܘܢ ܒܩܘܪ̈ܝܐ ܕܫܡܪ̈ܝܐ܃ ܘܫܪܟܐ ܕܥܒܪ ܢܗܪܐ TgEsth2 1:1 הוה שליט בכל עיבר נהרא

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03-28-2013, 10:44 AM	#12
stephan huller Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: seattle, wa Posts: 9,337	Pseudo-Jerome's etymology does not change anything. villa is often used in the Vulgate to translate agros: So Mark 15:21: A certain man from Cyrene, Simon, the father of Alexander and Rufus, was passing by on his way in from the country (ἀγροῦ/villa) , and they forced him to carry the cross.

03-28-2013, 10:51 AM	#14
stephan huller Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: seattle, wa Posts: 9,337	Mary's evidence from Josephus is also curious. Why would 'the people of the country' call a fountain 'Capernaum' if it means 'village of consolation'? What on earth would cause people to name a fountain 'village'? "it is also watered from a most fertile fountain.The people of the country call it Capharnaum. Some have thought it to be a vein of the Nile." I am wondering whether this is evidence of an original Latin text with the word villa which was translated into Greek as 'village' because villa was taken to be diminutive of vicus (= village). So a small village called 'consolation.' Could this be more evidence for a Latin original text of Mark? And that this text became authoritative when reconstructing all the other gospels?

03-28-2013, 11:00 AM	#15
stephan huller Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: seattle, wa Posts: 9,337	According to the Franciscan monk webpage "Capharnaum, according to Jerome, means ‘field of fatness’, or ‘farm of consolation’ (ager pinquedinis, or villa consolationis)."

03-28-2013, 11:13 AM	#16
stephan huller Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: seattle, wa Posts: 9,337	Independent of what Origen says an imaginative explanation might be found in the Qumran text's interest in a 'young lion' (כְּפִיר) given the interest we know existed in near contemporary Jewish circles. The 'Lion of Wrath' (כְּפִיר הֶחָרוֹן, kefir he-Haron), character mentioned in the Nahum and Hosea commentaries from Qumran Cave 4 (4QpNahum): http://books.google.com/books?id=zRB...0nahum&f=false Justin has " And the expression, ‘They opened their mouth upon me like a roaring lion,’ designates him who was then king of the Jews, and was called Herod, a successor of the Herod who, when Christ was born, slew all the infants in Bethlehem born about the same time, because he imagined that amongst them He would assuredly be of whom the Magi from Arabia had spoken; for he was ignorant of the will of Him that is stronger than all, how He had commanded Joseph and Mary to take the Child and depart into Egypt, and there to remain until a revelation should again be made to them to return into their own country."

03-28-2013, 12:06 PM	#17
stephan huller Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: seattle, wa Posts: 9,337	Ezekiel 38:13 was mistranslated by the LXX. Instead of 'young lions' they rendered kefirim as kefarim (= villages). This might be part of the problem: http://books.google.com/books?id=M-5...%3A%22&f=false

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