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Old 01-31-2005, 12:21 PM   #1
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Default questions re I Cor 15

so, what have the members of this forum come to believe re
I Cor 15:3ff being an interpolation or a Pauline adoption of
something pre-Pauline? I am currently reading the essay by
Price arguing that 3ff is post-Pauline.

One reason that this subject interests me is that I have doubts about
a substitionary atonement and I Cor 15 is the only place in which Paul or
some person says that Christ died for our sins. Elsewhere, Paul uses other language.
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Old 01-31-2005, 12:40 PM   #2
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Default

The last thread on that topic: Emails between Layman and Robert Price which got off topic very quickly.

also

Is 1 Cor. 15:3-11 an interpolation?

I think that the case for the reference to the 500 bretheren being an interpolation or a marginal note that got copied into the text is very strong. The case for the rest of it being an interpolation is good but harder to show.
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Old 01-31-2005, 12:56 PM   #3
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Default re I cor 15:3ff

I am pretty weird, as a liberal Christian with reasons to doubt the
substitutionary atonement theory. If substitutionary atonement is a mistake,
then, I cor 15:3ff being an interpolation absolves paul of having taught this mistake.
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