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Old 10-11-2006, 10:13 PM   #21
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Oops! I "borrowed" this from others, an "outside" source, and some of "that which I allow not", regrettably remained,
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"If he called them elohim, unto whom the word of God came, and The Scripture may not be broken." John 10:33-35
Correction;
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"If he called them elohim, unto whom the word of YAH came, and The Scripture may not be broken." John 10:33-35
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Old 10-11-2006, 10:17 PM   #22
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This subject has been discussed extensively in previous threads,
Extensively, no. At length yes. There has been little depth to the discussion.

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The "Elohim" first referred to in Psalm 82 is YHWH Elohim.
"The assembly of El", is comprised of His saints, the believers, the adherents of YHWH Elohim, whom are the "elohim", amongst whom YHWH Elohim renders His judgment.
Being among the elohim is clarified in 82:6, when Elohim (82:1a) says about those he is among,
I had taken you for Elohim, sons of Elyon
You are simply not dealing with the passage beyond ovelooking its content. Here it is again:
Elohim stands in the assembly of El;
among the Elohim he renders judgment.
Elohim stands in El's assembly. There is a linguistic diferentiation between El and Elohim. Elohim is in his (El's) assembly.

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Originally Posted by Sheshbazzar
The Messiah quotes from this very Psalm in rebuking the Jews when they attempt to charge Him with blasphemy;
Fat help some later ancient writer's tendentious adaption is.

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Originally Posted by Loomis
In this verse is El supposed to be YHWH?
Certainly, for all those other "El's" are only the "el'ee'leem", powerless imaginary forces, "null-gods" fabricated with wood, stone, metal, and of men's imaginations.
How would you know? What you are doing is eisegesis. You need to work with the passage and what it says, then place it in the tradition it historically belongs to. This is the reason I turned once again to Deut 32:8-9. I could also have turned to the Ugaritic corpus of literature in which Baal, who has many of the traits of YHWH, makes his presence felt in the council of El, which is after all on Mt Zaphon, ie the sides of the north, the mountain of Ugarit. The notion of a council or gathering of the gods, elohim, which is presided over by El is the tradition in which the passage belongs. Just as Elohim is a part of the council, so is YHWH in Deut 32:8-9.

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The verse is worded as it is, and we are pleased with it as it is worded; We are confident that YHWH is standing in The Assembly of YHWH...
This is late monotheistic retrojection, substituting whatever you want to come to the conclusion you want.

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...else we would no longer be assembling for the sake of His Holy Name.
What is the thought behind this comment?


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Old 10-11-2006, 10:30 PM   #23
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The reading of "Elohim" is from the earliest copy of the text from Qumran.
From what I’ve read it appears to be even more damning than ‘sons of Elohim’. It appears to be ‘sons of El’. See Mark S. Smith and Michael Heiser for details.

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This suggests an assembly of the sons of El among whom we find YHWH. Isn't this the same situation as we find in Ps 82?
Well … no. The imagery of El and his sons is the same, but the roll of Yahweh in Deut 32:9 is slightly different from the roll of Elohim in Psalm 82.

In Deut 32:9 Yahweh is portrayed as just another son - on a level playing field with Chemosh, Milcom, Shachar, Shalem, or Baal. But in Psalm 82 the sons of El are buffoons and Elohim is ‘firing them’ and condemning them to die like mortals. Elohim does not appear to be El or a son of El. He’s an outsider.

I think Deut 32:8-9 and Psalm 82 are drawing from Ugaritic & Canaanite mythology (from El and his pantheon of 70 sons), but they are not on the same wavelength. I don’t think the authors were aware of each other’s stories.

Am I making any sense?
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Old 10-11-2006, 10:47 PM   #24
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Elohim stands in El's assembly. There is a linguistic diferentiation between El and Elohim. Elohim is in his (El's) assembly.
Yep.

Are you familiar with 11QMelch?

The author quotes Psalm 82:1 (“Elohim stands in the council of El”) but inserts “Melchizedek” in place of “Elohim” (God).

This shows that El and Elohim were not considered the same entity.

Am I making any sense?
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Old 10-11-2006, 10:47 PM   #25
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The imagery of El and his sons is the same, but the roll of Yahweh in Deut 32:9 is slightly different from the roll of Elohim in Psalm 82.

In Deut 32:9 Yahweh is portrayed as just another son - on a level playing field with Chemosh, Milcom, Shachar, Shalem, or Baal. But in Psalm 82 the sons of El are buffoons and Elohim is ‘firing them’ and condemning them to die like mortals. Elohim does not appear to be El or a son of El. He’s an outsider.
The relationship between Elohim/YHWH and El is the one I was referring to, sorry. The texts were written at different moments in the tradition's development and that's what your data points too. The exact relationship with El is obscure in Ps 82, though Elohim is in his assembly.

Both texts have been modified. We are lucky with the DSS Deut 32 that we have the earlier form "sons of elohim", rather than "sons of Israel", which confuses the passage. So does the obvious disturbance of having Elohim among the Elohim in Ps 82. It suggests an elohist alteration of the term which was there before it was changed to Elohim. Most often when changes can be perceived it regards Baal, as when the theophoric element -baal B(L becomes -bosheth B$T or -b-'am B(M. This hints at the desire to remove references to Baal and replacement with YHWH would be another means.

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Originally Posted by Loomis
I think Deut 32:8-9 and Psalm 82 are drawing from Ugaritic & Canaanite mythology (from El and his pantheon of 70 sons), but they are not on the same wavelength. I don’t think the authors were aware of each other’s stories.
Ugarit was destroyed a long time before this material was written, so its influence will not be direct. It will become just a part of the undergrowth that writers had available to them. They were written at different times (and maybe even dealing originally with different deities). A more complete reclamation of the more original forms may be beyond our capabilities.


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Old 10-11-2006, 10:48 PM   #26
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Of course from our monoYahwhistic perspective, there is no "El" other than Yahweh, and there never has been;
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Isa 44:6 Thus saith YAHWEH the King of Israel, and his redeemer YAHWEH of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no Elohim.

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Isa 44:8 Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a Eloah beside me? yea, there is no [El]; I know not any.

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Isa 45:5 I am YAHWEH, and there is none else, there is no Elohim beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:

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Isa 45:21 Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I YAHWEH? and there is no Elohim else beside me; a just EL and a Saviour; there is none beside me.

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Hosea 13:4 Yet I am YAHWEH your El from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no Elohim but me: for there is no saviour beside Me.
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Old 10-11-2006, 10:55 PM   #27
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The author [of 11QMelch] quotes Psalm 82:1 (“Elohim stands in the council of El”) but inserts “Melchizedek” in place of “Elohim” (God).
I checked this out, but while 11Q13 deals with Melkizedeq, it has the MT Elohim, not Melkizedeq, at the beginning of Ps 82:1 and the Masada psalms version is the same as the MT.


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Old 10-11-2006, 10:57 PM   #28
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Of course from our monoYahwhistic perspective, there is no "El" other than Yahweh, and there never has been;
Does that change what the texts of Deut 32 and Ps 82 actually say?


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Old 10-11-2006, 11:03 PM   #29
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So does the obvious disturbance of having Elohim among the Elohim in Ps 82. It suggests an elohist alteration of the term which was there before it was changed to Elohim.
Yes. I agree.

Maybe it was Baal. Maybe it was Melchizedek, or maybe it was “the Son of Man.”

Or else …

Maybe Elohim #1 was originally “Yahweh” and the elohist wiped him out.

Now wouldn’t that be funny.

It could happen.
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Old 10-11-2006, 11:44 PM   #30
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Maybe it was Baal. Maybe it was Melchizedek, or maybe it was “the Son of Man.”
We can scratch Melkizedeq as a late figure. The Genesis 14 reference can't even be found in Jubilees. Where it appears in the DSS, the Genesis Apocryphon, that text regularly uses the theophoric reference El Elyon, where as in Genesis it only appears in the Melkizedeq passage, a passage which appears between when Abram goes out to see the king of Sodom and the first words of the king of Sodom.

We can scratch "the son of man", when it means something other than "mere mortal", as a christian phrase.

Baal is the easiest of the available possibilities because the role is his in the Ugaritic literature and as a point of reference he was available, unlike Melkizedeq or the son of man.

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Or else …

Maybe Elohim #1 was originally “Yahweh” and the elohist wiped him out...
(Sorry, I was a little confusing with terminology. I used "elohist" as an adjective. I didn't want to conjure up Wellhausen's elohist writer of his documentary theory, but simply the fact that someone changed the term to "elohim". I admit the sentence was contorted.)

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...Now wouldn’t that be funny.
Yup, but it seems unlikely though. While in the pentateuch there may have been two separate traditions indicated by the terms elohist and yahwist, there is no clear sign beyond the pentateuch that this separation of tradition existed at all. The theology in Ps 82 is sufficiently more recent than that in Deut 32, having the god on a higher level than the rest, rather than one of the mob. It would be probable that by the time we have this theology, YHWH and Elohim had been reduced to the same entity, so I don't see it likely that the scribe would change YHWH to Elohim. But, hey, who knows? It is still possible that it was a simple scribal error of reading YHWH and automatically writing Elohim, but that would mean that he didn't read the whole sentence.


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